Recurrent Childhood Cerebral Astrocytoma

The reemergence of cerebral astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission.


Childhood Benign Cerebral Neoplasm

biolink:Disease biolink:DiseaseOrPhenotypicFeature biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:ThingWithTaxon

A childhood neoplasm that arises from the cerebrum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential.


Retropharyngeal Neoplasm

A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the retropharyngeal space.


Malignant Retropharyngeal Neoplasm

A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the retropharyngeal space.


Benign Retropharyngeal Neoplasm

A neoplasm that arises from the retropharyngeal space and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential.


Group B Streptococcal Infection, Late-Onset

Infection of an infant from seven days to three months of life caused by Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae).


Group B Streptococcal Infection, Early-Onset

Infection of an infant from birth to less than seven days of life caused by Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae) from a colonized mother.


Stage IVC Oral Cavity Squamous Cell Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7

Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Umbilical hernia with gangrene

A protrusion of necrotic tissue through the abdominal wall under the skin near the umbilicus.


Shoulder Joint Tendons

biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

The tendons that connect the muscles and bones that comprise the glenohumeral and acromioclavicular joints and enable abduction of the arm and stabilization of the shoulder.


Ankle Joint Anterior Flexor Tendons

The tendons in the anterior compartment of the leg that connect muscles that originate on the surfaces of the femur, tibia, and fibula to bones in the toes and enable plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle.


Ankle Joint Anterior Extensor Tendons

The tendons in the anterior compartment of the leg that cross the tibiotalar joint anteriorly and connect muscles that originate on the surfaces of the tibia and fibula to bones in the toes and enable dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle and extension of the toes.


Wrist Joint Flexor Tendons

The tendons located along the inside of the forearm that cross at the wrist and connect muscles of the forearm to wrist and hand bones, enabling bending of the wrist towards the palm.


Knee Joint Tendons

The tendons that connect the quadriceps muscles to the kneecap, the hamstring muscles to the shin bone and fibula, and the patella to the top part of the fibula, enabling flexion, extension, and slight rotation of the knee.


patellar ligament

biolink:GrossAnatomicalStructure biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

The central portion of the common tendon of the quadriceps femoris. It is attached to the apex of the PATELLA and to the lower part of the tubercle of the TIBIA.


Wrist Joint Extensor Tendons

The tendons located along the back part of the forearm that cross to the thumb side of the wrist and connect muscles of the forearm to the base of hand bones, enabling bending of the wrist back and towards the thumb.


calcaneal tendon

The Achilles tendon is a tendon of the posterior leg. It serves to attach the plantaris, gastrocnemius (calf) and soleus muscles to the calcaneus (heel) bone.


Structure of flexor tendon of finger

The tendons located on the palm side of the fingers that connect the flexor muscles of the forearm and hand to bones in the fingers, enabling flexion towards the palm.


Structure of extensor tendon of finger

The tendons located on the dorsal side of the fingers that connect muscles of the forearm and hand to bones in the fingers, enabling straightening of the fingers.


Cerebral abscess

A bacterial, fungal, or parasitic abscess that develops in the cerebral hemispheres. Causes include skull trauma, middle ear infection, congenital heart disease, and frontal and ethmoid sinus infection.


Epithelioid Schwannoma

A schwannoma characterized by the presence of epithelioid cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, within a myxoid and/or hyalinized stroma.


cardenolide

A steroid lactone that is a C23 steroid with methyl groups at C-10 and C-13 and a butenolide ring at C-17.


cardenolide glycoside

Any member of the class of cardenolides with glycosyl residues attached to position 3.


right atrium endocardium

Endocardium that is part of the right atrium.


endocardium of atrium

Endocardium that is part of the atrium.


left atrium endocardium

Endocardium that is part of the left atrium.


endocardium of left auricle

An endocardium that is part of a left atrium auricular region.


endocardium of auricle

An endocardium that is part of a atrium auricular region.


endocardium of right auricle

An endocardium that is part of a right atrium auricular region.


manual digit 2

2nd digit of the manus.


Adult Diffuse Midline Glioma, H3 K27-Altered

A rare diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered that occurs during adulthood.


Metastatic Adult Malignant Neoplasm in the Brain

A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to the brain in an adult patient.


Adult Brain Glioblastoma

A brain glioblastoma that occurs during adulthood.


COPI-coated Golgi to ER transport vesicle

biolink:CellularComponent biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

A vesicle that mediates transport from the Golgi to the endoplasmic reticulum.


Recurrent Childhood Glioblastoma

The reemergence of glioblastoma in childhood after a period of remission.


Recurrent WHO Grade 4 Glioma

The reemergence of WHO grade 4 glioma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Supratentorial Glioblastoma

The reemergence of supratentorial glioblastoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Glioblastoma

The reemergence of glioblastoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Childhood Gliosarcoma

The reemergence of gliosarcoma in childhood after a period of remission.


Recurrent Glioblastoma, IDH-Wildtype

The reemergence of glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype after a period of remission.


Recurrent MGMT-Methylated Glioblastoma

The reemergence of MGMT-methylated glioblastoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Childhood Giant Cell Glioblastoma

The reemergence of giant cell glioblastoma in childhood after a period of remission.


Recurrent Small Cell Glioblastoma

The reemergence of small cell glioblastoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Giant Cell Glioblastoma

The reemergence of giant cell glioblastoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Gliosarcoma

The reemergence of gliosarcoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Astrocytoma, IDH-Mutant, Grade 4

The reemergence of astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, Grade 4, after a period of remission.


Recurrent Diffuse Midline Glioma, H3 K27M-Mutant

The reemergence of diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27M mutant, after a period of remission.


Recurrent Brain Glioblastoma

The reemergence of brain glioblastoma after a period of remission.


Congenital anomaly of the urinary tract proper

An abnormality of the kidney, ureter, bladder, or urethra that is present at birth. Representative examples include renal hypoplasia, renal agenesis, accessory kidney, absence of ureter, atresia of bladder neck, and atresia of urethra.


Urachal remnant

Remaining collapsed and obliterated urachal tissue between the bladder dome and umbilicus.


Posterior Urethral Valves Type 1

A posterior urethral valve extending from the vera montanum towards the distal meatus.


Posterior Urethral Valves Type 3

A posterior urethral valve, presumed to result from incomplete canalization of the urethra, that is located immediately distal to the vera montanum.


Double kidney (disorder)

A congenital abnormality of the kidney characterized by the presence of two separate pelvicocaliceal systems with a single or duplex ureter.


Congenital Renal Hypoplasia

The underdevelopment of otherwise normal renal parenchyma, characterized by decreased nephron size and possibly a decreased number of nephrons at birth.


Prostatic Duct Urothelial Carcinoma

An urothelial carcinoma that arises from the urothelial lining of the prostatic ducts.


Ann Arbor Stage II Supradiaphragmatic Lymphocyte-Depleted Classic Hodgkin Lymphoma


large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma of kidney

An aggressive, high-grade and poorly differentiated carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the kidney.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant large cells.


Solitary mass

A single isolated mass.


Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity stage I

Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)


Stage I Lip and Oral Cavity Squamous Cell Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7

Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)


leg nerve

A nerve that is part of a leg [Automatically generated definition].


lower leg nerve

A nerve that is part of a lower leg [Automatically generated definition].


upper leg nerve

A nerve that is part of a hindlimb stylopod [Automatically generated definition].


Childhood Bone Osteosarcoma

An osteosarcoma that arises from the bone and occurs during childhood.


Refractory Childhood Osteosarcoma

Childhood osteosarcoma that is resistant to treatment.


(R)-thalidomide

A 2-(2,6-dioxopiperidin-3-yl)-1H-isoindole-1,3(2H)-dione that has R-configuration at the chiral centre.


Benign Extrahepatic Bile Duct Non-Epithelial Neoplasm

A neoplasm that arises from the non-epithelial tissues of the extrahepatic bile ducts and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential.


Extrahepatic Bile Duct Fibroma

A benign neoplasm arising from the extra hepatic bile duct. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts.


Benign Extrahepatic Bile Duct Soft Tissue Neoplasm

A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential.


Extrahepatic Bile Duct Benign Granular Cell Tumor

A granular cell tumor that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential.


thoracic vertebra 9

The ninth thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].


Pigmented epithelioid melanocytoma

A cutaneous melanocytic neoplasm composed of heavily pigmented epithelioid and dendritic cells, with metastatic potential limited to regional lymph nodes. It can occur as a sporadic lesion or in patients with Carney complex. (WHO 2018)


Grade 3 or 4 Elevation of AST, ALT, and/or Bilirubin

biolink:PhenotypicFeature biolink:DiseaseOrPhenotypicFeature biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:ThingWithTaxon

A finding of grade 3 or 4 AST, Grade 3 or 4 ALT, and/or grade 3 or 4 bilirubin.


follicular dendritic cell sarcoma of thyroid gland

A rare follicular dendritic cell sarcoma involving the thyroid gland. It may be associated with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis.


Moderate Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia

A chronic lung disorder associated with pulmonary maldevelopment, scarring, and/or inflammation that develops in preterm neonates exposed to supplemental oxygen for at least 28 days. For infants born before 32 weeks gestation with moderate BPD, there is a supplemental oxygen requirement of less than 30% at 36 weeks postmenstrual age or earlier discharge. For infants born after 32 weeks with moderate BPD, there is a supplemental oxygen requirement of less than 30% at 56 days post-natal age or at earlier discharge.


chromoplast outer membrane

The outer, i.e. cytoplasm-facing, lipid bilayer of the chromoplast envelope.


Kidney Lymphangioma

A rare lymphangioma arising from the kidney.


viral factory

An intracellular compartment in a host cell which increases the efficiency of viral replication, and shields the virus from host defenses. Viral factories can be either cytoplasmic or nuclear and often arise from extensive rearrangement of host cell cytoskeletal and/or cell membrane compartments.


double membrane vesicle viral factory

A cytoplasmic viral factory that consists of a double-membrane bound vesicle. Has a diameter of 200-300nm and is derived from the endoplasmic reticulum or Golgi apparatus. Produced by Picornaviridae, Nidovirales, Arteriviridae and Coronaviridae.


tube viral factory

A cytoplasmic viral factory derived from the Golgi in which Bunyaviridae replication takes place. Tubes are membranous structures close to the assembly and budding sites, and their function may be to connect viral replication and morphogenesis inside viral factories.


viroplasm viral factory

A cytoplasmic viral factory that is electron dense due to high levels of viral RNA. Produced by nucleo-cytoplasmic large DNA viruses (NCLDV) like Poxviridae, Asfarviridae and Iridoviridae, and dsRNA viruses like Reoviridae.


host cell viral assembly compartment

A membrane-bounded compartment that forms in the cytoplasm of the host cell, in which virus assembly takes place.


spherule viral factory

A cytoplasmic viral factory which is a 50-400nm diameter membrane invagination. Spherules can appear on several enveloped cellular components depending on the virus.


cytoplasmic viral factory

A viral factory located in the cytoplasm of a host cell.


Prostate Hemangioma

A rare hemangioma that arises from the prostate gland.


Vulvar Congenital Melanocytic Nevus

A benign nevus that arises from the vulva and is present at birth.


Congenital small melanocytic nevus

A congenital nevus of small size, with a diameter smaller than 1.5 cm. It presents as a macular, papular or plaque-like lesion.


Proliferative dermal lesion in congenital nevus

A benign proliferation of epithelioid or spindled melanocytes usually in the upper or mid dermis in a background of congenital melanocytic nevus. The congenital melanocytic nevus is usually of the deep type, involving the dermis and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. It presents as a dark plaque or nodule above a giant congenital melanocytic nevus.


Central Nervous System Solitary Fibrous Tumor, Grade 1

A solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the central nervous system. It corresponds most often to the collagenous and low cellularity spindle cell tumor which was diagnosed as central nervous system solitary fibrous tumor in the past.


Stomach Mass

An abnormal growth located in the stomach.


cytoplasmic microtubule bundle

Any microtubule bundle that is part of a cytoplasm.


axon microtubule bundle

An arrangement of closely apposed microtubules running parallel to each other in the axon hillock and initial segment.


dynamic microtubule bundle

A microtubule bundle that undergoes changes in length, and in which microtubule sliding takes place.


static microtubule bundle

A microtubule bundle that has a constant length, and in which microtubule sliding does not take place.


insect embryonic/larval brain

Brain of the embryo/larva.


insect embryonic brain

Brain of the embryo.


insect adult brain

Brain of the adult.


neural tube derived brain

A brain that develops_from a neural tube.


Refractory Fungal Infection

A fungal infection that is resistant to treatment.


Renal Benign Mesenchymoma

A benign mesenchymoma arising from the kidney.


Mild Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia

A chronic lung disorder associated with pulmonary maldevelopment, scarring, and/or inflammation that develops in preterm neonates exposed to supplemental oxygen for at least 28 days. For infants born before 32 weeks gestation with mild BPD, there is no supplemental oxygen requirement at 36 weeks postmenstrual age or earlier discharge. For infants born after 32 weeks with mild BPD, there is no supplemental oxygen requirement at 56 days post-natal age or at earlier discharge.


H influenze type B Pneumonia

Pneumonia that is attributed to the bacteria H influenze type B.


Collapsed Lung

Atelectasis of an entire lung.


Somatoform autonomic dysfunction - respiratory tract

A respiratory malfunction for which mental factors play a causative role.


Acute pneumonia

Acute inflammation of the lung parenchyma caused by viruses, bacteria, fungi, radiation treatment, or exposure to chemicals.  Signs and symptoms include cough, shortness of breath, fevers, chills, chest pain, headache, sweating, and weakness.


Non-Neoplastic Lung Disorder

A lung disorder not caused by a neoplasm. Representative examples include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, atelectasis, lung infections, pulmonary fibrosis, and pneumoconiosis.


Bronchiolitis Obliterans Syndrome

Bronchiolitis obliterans following lung or allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation.


Follicular Bronchitis/Bronchiolitis

A non-neoplastic disorder characterized by the formation of reactive lymphoid follicles adjacent to distal bronchi and bronchioles.  It presents with mild shortness of breath and is associated with immunodeficiency syndromes and collagen vascular disorders.


COVID-19-Associated Pneumonia

Pneumonia caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2). It is characterized by the presence of ground glass opacities on CT scan images.


Congenital anomaly of lung

A malformation in the lung that is present at birth. Representative examples include pulmonary hypoplasia, pulmonary agenesis, congenital lobar emphysema, and alveolar capillary dysplasia.


Respiratory Failure Related to Neuromuscular Disorder

Impaired gas exchange by the respiratory system resulting in hypoxemia and decreased oxygenation of the tissues that may be associated with increased arterial levels of carbon dioxide; the respiratory failure is due to a neuromuscular disorder.


Pulmonary cryptococcosis

Fungal pneumonia caused by inhalation of particles of Cryptococcus.  It usually occurs in immunocompromised patients such as persons with AIDS, transplant recipients, patients receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy, and patients with hematologic malignancies.  It is rare in immunocompetent individuals.  Signs and symptoms include fever, cough, and dyspnea.


Pneumonia due to respiratory syncytial virus

Pneumonia that is attributed to the respiratory syncytial virus.


Paracicatricial Emphysema

The development of dilated terminal airspaces in the lung adjacent to parenchymal scarring.


Chronic obstructive asthma (with obstructive pulmonary disease)

Chronic airway obstruction caused by asthma.


Pulmonary vascular disorder

A category of non-neoplastic disorders that affect the blood vessels in the lungs.  Representative examples include pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, and arteriovenous malformations.


Steroid-Refractory Pneumonitis

Pneumonitis that does not respond to corticosteroid therapy.


Tuberculous bronchiectasis

Bronchiectasis that develops in patients with a history of pulmonary tuberculosis.  It is usually associated with healed scars but occasionally may be seen in patients with active pulmonary tuberculosis.


Severe acute respiratory infection

A respiratory infectious disorder that leads to an acute illness that requires medical attention.


Stannosis

A disorder associated with chronic exposure to inhaled tin oxide dust or fumes.


Severe Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia that results in severe respiratory complications. The infants with severe symptoms are usually premature, have low birth weight, and the oxygen and ventilation support requirements are increased.


Pneumonia due to methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Pneumonia that is caused by Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to methicillin treatment.


Cannabinosis

A disorder associated with chronic exposure to inhaled dust during the processing of hemp.


Asbestos-Related Lung Disorder

A disorder affecting the lungs due to asbestos exposure. Examples include asbestosis and lung carcinoma.


Toxoplasma Pneumonia

Pneumonia caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii.  It usually presents as an opportunistic infection in immunocompromised patients, especially patients with AIDS.  It is rare in immunocompetent individuals.  Signs and symptoms include cough, fever, and dyspnea.


Secondary Pneumonia

A pneumonia that occurs during or following treatment for an acute (primary) pneumonia that was caused by a different organism. It may be the result of increased susceptibility due to the initial treatment.


Pulmonary trunk hypoplasia

Underdeveloped pulmonary arteries.


Respiratory Failure Related to Central Nervous System Disorder

Impaired gas exchange by the respiratory system resulting in hypoxemia and decreased oxygenation of the tissues that may be associated with increased arterial levels of carbon dioxide; the respiratory failure is due to a central nervous system disorder.


Sickle Cell Chronic Lung Disease

A pulmonary complication of sickle cell disease characterized by radiographic interstitial abnormalities and impaired pulmonary function. In severe cases, pulmonary hypertension is present.


Hyaline Membrane Syndrome

A serious disorder affecting newborns, particularly premature infants. It is caused by deficiency of surfactant, resulting in the formation of a membrane in the alveoli lining. This membrane contains fibrin and cellular debris and interferes with respiration. Infants with this disorder develop breathing problems immediately or in a few hours after delivery. It may lead to respiratory failure.


Fibrotic Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis

Interstitial lung fibrosis resulting from chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis.


AIDS-Related Pneumocystis Pneumonia

A serious AIDS-related opportunistic infection of the lungs, caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii.  It is one of the most common AIDS-related illnesses and is a major cause of morbidity in patients with AIDS.  Signs and symptoms include cough, fever, dyspnea, and pain or tightness in the chest.


Pulmonary Precancerous Condition

A premalignant pathologic process that affects the lungs.  This category includes bronchial intraepithelial neoplasia and atypical adenomatous hyperplasia.


hepatopancreas

An organ of the digestive tract of arthropods and molluscs. It provides the functions which in mammals are provided separately by the liver and pancreas, including the production of digestive enzymes, and absorption of digested food.


arthropod hepatopancreas

Digestive gland of crustaceans with functions approximately analogous to liver and pancreas of vertebrates - enzyme secretion, food absorption and storage.


Mesothelial hyperplasia

A hyperplasia of the mesothelial cells.


Atypical Mesothelial Hyperplasia

An atypical hyperplasia of the mesothelial cells.


Infectious Salpingitis

An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the fallopian tube. Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhea, Mycoplasma, Staphylococcus, and Streptococcus are the most common causative agents.


ovarian vein

A vein that carries deoxygenated blood from its corresponding ovary to inferior vena cava or one of its tributaries.


left ovarian vein

Ovarian vein, each instance of which is a tributary  of some left renal vein that drains the left pampiniform plexus of some broad ligament.


right ovarian vein

Ovarian vein, each instance of which is a tributary  of some inferior vena cava that drains the right pampiniform plexus of some broad ligament.


metanephros

In mammals, the metanephros is the excretory organ of the fetus, which develops into the mature kidney and is formed from the rear portion of the nephrogenic cord. The metanephros is an endocrine and metabolic organ that filters the blood and excretes the end products of body metabolism in the form of urine[GO].


pharyngeal pouch 3

A pharyngeal pouch that between pharyngeal arches 3 and 4.


neural plate

A region of embryonic ectodermal cells that lie directly above the notochord. During neurulation, they change shape and produce an infolding of the neural plate (the neural fold) that then seals to form the neural tube[XAO]. The earliest recognizable dorsal ectodermal primordium of the central nervous system present near the end of gastrulation before infolding to form the neural keel; consists of a thickened pseudostratified epithelium[ZFA].


atrial septum secundum

Missing definition for term UBERON:0004155. Please replace it using linked reference.


lung bud

Structure derived from foregut that becomes a lung[GO].


subcardinal vein

A vein in the mammalian embryo or the adult of some lower vertebrates that is located on each side of the abdominal region ventromedial to the mesonephros and that in mammals participates in the formation of the inferior vena cava and the renal vein.


optic stalk

The narrow, proximal portion of the optic vesicle which connects the embryonic eye and forebrain.


neural fold

One of the two elevated edges of the neural groove[GO,MP].


primitive streak

The primitive streak is a structure that forms during the early stages of avian, reptilian and mammalian embryonic development[WP]. the midline ridge of the embryonic epiblast that later develops into mesoderm and endoderm[MP].


stapedial artery

A small artery that passes through the ring of the stapes; while the stapedial artery is a temporary artery thought to disappear at late embryonic stage in humans, the mouse stapedial artery is complete by E13 and persists into adulthood[MP].


pronephros

In mammals, the pronephros is the first of the three embryonic kidneys to be established and exists only transiently. In lower vertebrates such as fish and amphibia, the pronephros is the fully functional embryonic kidney and is indispensible for larval life[GO].


atrial septum primum

In the developing heart, the cavity of the primitive atrium becomes subdivided into right and left chambers by a septum, the septum primum, which grows downward into the cavity. The increasingly smaller gap below it (before it fuses with the endocardial cushion) is known as the ostium primum. The septum primum eventually fuses with the endocardial cushion, closing the ostium primum off completely. Meanwhile, perforations appear in the superior part of the septum primum, forming the ostium secundum. This will eventually form part of the fossa ovalis.


vitelline vein

The paired veins that carry blood from the yolk sac back to the embryo.


central tendon of diaphragm

The three-lobed cloverleaf-shaped aponeurosis situated at the center of the diaphragm; the central tendon is fused with the fibrous pericardium that provides attachment for the muscle fibers.


ovary sex cord

Structures that develop from sex cords in the female. After further development they become the ovarian follicles.


truncus arteriosus

The truncus arteriosus and bulbus cordis are divided by the aorticopulmonary septum. The truncus arteriosus gives rise to the ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk. The bulbus cordis gives rise to the smooth parts (outflow tract) of the left and right ventricles.


periderm

A temporary epithelium that derives from the outer layer of the ectdoerm and is shed once the inner layer differentiates to form a true epidermis.


pharyngeal pouch 1

A pharyngeal pouch that is between pharyngeal arches 1 and 2.


embryonic cardiovascular system

A cardiovascular system that is part of a conceptus.


sex cord

Cordlike masses of epithelial tissue that invaginate from germinal epithelium of the gonad and give rise to seminiferous tubules and rete testes in the male, and primary ovarian follicles and rete ovarii in the female.


ventral mesogastrium

Portion of ventral mesentery closest to the stomach.


ductus arteriosus

A fetal blood vessel connecting the pulmonary artery with the descending aorta[MESH]. In the developing fetus, the ductus arteriosus is a shunt connecting the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch. It allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the fetus' fluid-filled lungs, protecting the lungs from being overworked and allowing the left ventricle to strengthen. There are two other fetal shunts, the ductus venosus and the foramen ovale[MP]. the fetal vessel that connects the left pulmonary artery with the descending aorta; the ductus arteriosus normally regresses into a fibrous cord, the ligamentum arteriousum after birth[MP].


dorsal mesogastrium

The portion of mesentery attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is named the dorsal mesentery (or dorsal mesogastrium, when referring to the portion at the stomach), and the part which suspends the colon is termed the mesocolon. The dorsal mesogastrium develops into the greater omentum.


indifferent gonad

A gonad prior to differentiating into a definitive testis or ovary.


pharyngeal pouch 5

A pharyngeal pouch between pharyngeal arches 5 and 6.


somite

Somites are spheres of epithelial cells that form sequentially along the anterior-posterior axis of the embryo through mesenchymal to epithelial transition of the presomitic mesoderm.


nasolacrimal groove

Groove between maxillary prominence and lateral nasal process.


pharyngeal pouch

An internal pocketing of pharyngeal endoderm that contacts a region of ectoderm (a pharyngeal cleft) and interdigitates in the anterior and posterior directions with the pharyngeal arches.


Embryonic palate

The development of the roof of the oral cavity from the fusion of median palatine process to the paired lateral palatine processes, which occurs between the six and twelfth weeks of gestation.


supracardinal vein

Either of two veins in the mammalian embryo and various adult lower vertebrate forms located in the thoracic and abdominal regions dorsolateral to and on either side of the descending aorta and giving rise to the azygos and hemiazygos veins and a part of the inferior vena cava[MW]. These veins drain the body wall via the segmental intercostal veins, thus taking over the function of the posterior cardinals[ISBN].


ductus venosus

The vascular channel in the fetus passing through the liver and joining the umbilical vein with the inferior vena cava.


pharyngeal arch artery

One of a series of paired embryological vascular structures formed within a pharyngeal arch; in the adult, some of these vessels give rise to the great vessels[MP].


notochordal plate

The notochordal plate is the dorsal part of the notochordal process when the ventral portion breaks down. It is continuous laterally with the endoderm that composes the roof of the primitive foregut and is in contact dorsally with the neural tube. The folding off of the notochordal plate gives rise to the notochord.


pharyngeal pouch 2

A pharyngeal puch that is between the pharyngeal arches 2 and 3.


pharyngeal pouch 4

A pharyngeal pouch between pharyngeal arch 4 and arch 5 or 6 (a fifth arch never establishes in amniotes).


mitomycin

A family of aziridine-containing natural products isolated from Streptomyces caespitosus or Streptomyces lavendulae.


onium betaine

Neutral molecules having charge-separated forms with an onium atom which bears no hydrogen atoms and that is not adjacent to the anionic atom.


O-acetylcarnitine

An O-acylcarnitine having acetyl as the acyl substituent.


saturated fatty acyl-L-carnitine

An O-acylcarnitine in which the R is a saturated fatty acyl chain.


thiamine(1+) diphosphate(1-)

An ammonium betaine that is the conjugate base of thiamine(1+) diphosphate arising from the deprotonation of one of the hydroxy groups of the terminal phosphate group.


O-acylcarnitine

Any carboxylic ester obtained by the O-acylation of carnitine.


thiaminium carboxylate betaine

An ammonium betaine that is the conjugate base of thiamine(1+) carboxylic acid arising from the deprotonation of the carboxy group.


amino-acid betaine

Any amino acid-derived zwitterion - such as glycine betaine (N,N,N-trimethylammonioacetate) - in which the ammonium nitrogen carries methyl substituents and bears no hydrogen atoms.


fatty acyl-L-carnitine

Any O-acylcarnitine in which the carnitine component has L-configuration and the acyl group is a fatty acid.


carnitine

An amino-acid betaine that is butanoate substituted with a hydroxy group at position C-3 and a trimethylammonium group at C-4.


thiamine(1+) triphosphate(1-)

An ammonium betaine that is the conjugate base of thiamine(1+) triphosphate arising from the deptoronation of one of the hydroxy groups of the terminal phosphate group.


thiamine(1+) monophosphate(1-)

An ammonium betaine that is the conjugate base of thiamine(1+) monophosphate arising from the deprotonation of one of the phosphate hydroxy groups.


O-acyl-L-carnitine

An O-acylcarnitine in which the carnitine component has L-configuration.


sulfonium betaine

Neutral molecules having charge-separated forms with an sulfonium atom which bears no hydrogen atoms and that is not adjacent to the anionic atom.


ammonium betaine

Any neutral molecule having charge-separated forms with a quaternary ammonium atom which bears no hydrogen atoms and that is not adjacent to the anionic atom.


Nbp35-Cfd1 ATPase complex

An iron-sulfur cluster assembly complex that is capable of weak ATPase activity. In yeast it consists of two subunits, Nbp35 and Cfd1.


crista of ampulla of anterior semicircular duct of membranous laybrinth

A crista ampullaris neuroepithelium that is part of a anterior semicircular duct.


crista ampullaris neuroepithelium

An epithelium that is part of a crista ampullaris.


crista of ampulla of lateral semicircular duct of membranous laybrinth

A crista ampullaris neuroepithelium that is part of a lateral semicircular duct.


crista of ampulla of posterior semicircular duct of membranous laybrinth

A crista ampullaris neuroepithelium that is part of a posterior semicircular duct.


Stage IA Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

pT1, N0, M0, S0. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Childhood Immature Teratoma

An immature teratoma occurring in children.


Localized Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Tumor confined to the testes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Childhood Choriocarcinoma

A choriocarcinoma occurring in children.


Stage III Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Any pT, Any N, M1, SX. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Testicular Yolk Sac Tumor, Prepubertal-Type

Testicular yolk sac tumor that almost always occurs in pure form and is not associated with germ cell neoplasia in situ. It affects young children and is the most frequently seen testicular neoplasm in prepubertal children.


Childhood Mature Teratoma

A mature teratoma occurring in children.


Refractory Childhood Malignant Germ Cell Tumor

A malignant germ cell tumor that occurs during childhood and is resistant to treatment.


Stage IIIC Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Any pT, N1-N3, M0, S3 or Any pT, Any N, M1, S3. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Stage IIIB Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Any pT, N1-N3, M0, S2 or Any pT, Any N, M1, S2. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Childhood Malignant Testicular Germ Cell Tumor

A malignant germ cell tumor in children arising from the testis.  It includes the embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, and mixed germ cell tumors.


Recurrent Childhood Malignant Germ Cell Tumor

The reemergence of a malignant germ cell tumor in children after a period of remission.


Stage IB Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

pT2-4, N0, M0, S0. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Childhood Germinomatous Germ Cell Tumor

A germinomatous germ cell tumor occurring in children.


Childhood Mixed Germ Cell Tumor

A mixed germ cell tumor occurring in children.


Stage IIA Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Any pT, N1, M0, S0, S1. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Stage II Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Any pT, N1-3, M0, SX. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Childhood Extracranial Germ Cell Tumor

A childhood benign or malignant germ cell tumor arising from an anatomic site other than the brain.


Metastatic Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Distant metastases present. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Childhood Teratoma

A mature or immature teratoma occurring in children.


Childhood Seminoma

A seminoma occurring in children.


Childhood Embryonal Carcinoma

An embryonal carcinoma occurring in children.


Childhood Extragonadal Teratoma

An extragonadal teratoma that occurs during childhood.


Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2 Stage, Tier 2

A term that refers to the staging of childhood testicular germ cell tumor according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2.


Regional Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Tumor extension to regional lymph nodes: interaortocaval, para-aortic (periaortic), paracaval, preaortic, precaval, retroaortic, retrocaval, and along spermatic cord. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Stage IIB Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Any pT, N2, M0, S0, S1. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Childhood Extragonadal Malignant Germ Cell Tumor

A malignant germ cell tumor in children arising from an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary.


Childhood Central Nervous System Teratoma

A mature or immature teratoma affecting the central nervous system and occurring in children.


Childhood Benign Germ Cell Tumor

A germ cell tumor that occurs during childhood and is characterized by the absence of atypia and metastatic potential.


Childhood Nongerminomatous Germ Cell Tumor

A nongerminomatous germ cell tumor occurring in children.


Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2 Stage, Tier 1

A term that refers to the staging of childhood testicular germ cell tumor according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2.


Childhood Testicular Non-Seminomatous Germ Cell Tumor

A non-seminomatous germ cell tumor that arises in the testis and occurs in children.


Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2 Stage

A term that refers to the staging of childhood testicular germ cell tumor according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2.


Stage IS Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Any pT, N0, M0, S1-3. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Stage I Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

pT1-4, N0, M0, SX. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Stage IIC Childhood Testicular Germ Cell Tumor by Toronto Guidelines v2

Any pT, N3, M0, S0, S1. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Childhood Testicular Yolk Sac Tumor

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis during childhood.


Primary Cutaneous Amyloidosis

Amyloidosis that arises and remains localized in the skin. There are three main forms of primary cutaneous amyloidosis: lichen amyloidosis presenting with multiple itchy, raised, scaly red/brown spots; macular amyloidosis presenting with itchy, flat, brown or grey spots that form patches of darkened skin; and nodular amyloidosis presenting with brown or red nodules.


stomach non-glandular epithelium

Am epithelium that lines the stomach which lacks glands. In addition to a glandular epithelium, the stomachs of some vertebrates also has a second region characterized by a nonglandular epithelium, devoid of gastric glands.


rumen epithelium

The rumen epithelium is the tissue which lines the largest of the four fore stomachs in the ruminant animal -cows and sheep. Rumen epithelial cells are important because they are responsible for the absorption of nutrients from the rumen into the blood.


Intermediate Grade Osteosarcoma

An osteosarcoma with intermediate-grade morphological features. A representative example is periosteal osteosarcoma.


Peripheral Nervous System Infectious Disorder

An infectious process affecting the peripheral nerves.


B-Cell Malignant Neoplasm

A clonal lymphoproliferative disorder composed of neoplastic B-cells. It includes B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas, B-cell leukemias, and plasma cell myeloma.


Chronic lymphocytic leukemia stage 1

Risk: Intermediate; Findings: Lymphocytosis and adenopathy; Survival (months): 95. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


Multiple Myeloma with MAF Family Translocation

Multiple myeloma characterized by the presence of a translocation involving a MAF family gene.


DS Stage IA Plasma Cell Myeloma

Durie/Salmon stage I multiple myeloma associated with a relatively normal renal function (serum creatinine concentration < 2.0 mg/dL).


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with t(4;11)(q21;23)

A B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with t(4;11)(q21;23.3). This translocation leads to the generation of the fusion gene KMT2A-AFF1.


Childhood B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1

A B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during childhood. It is characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts that carry a translocation between the BCR gene on chromosome 22 and the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9. It results in the production of the p190 kd or p210 kd fusion protein. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome.


Hypodiploid B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

A B-cell acute leukemia characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts which contain less than 46 chromosomes. It occurs in both children and adults. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome.


Recurrent Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia

The reemergence of chronic lymphocytic leukemia after a period of remission.


Refractory Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia/Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma that does not respond to treatment.


Recurrent Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia/Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma

The reemergence of chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma after a period of remission.


Refractory B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 that is resistant to treatment.


Leptomeningeal myelomatosis

A central nervous system multiple myeloma involving the leptomeninges.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with Recurrent Genetic Abnormalities

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemias characterized by the presence of recurring cytogenetic and/or molecular abnormalities.


Refractory B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia that does not respond to treatment.


Plasma cell myeloma recurrent

The reemergence of multiple myeloma after a period of remission.


DS Stage IIIB Plasma Cell Myeloma

Durie/Salmon stage III multiple myeloma associated with abnormal renal function (serum creatinine concentration greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL).


Recurrent B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with BCR-ABL1-Like Features

The reemergence of  B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like after a period of remission.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with ETV6-RUNX1-Like Features

B acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by a gene-expression profile similar to that of ETV6-RUNX1-positive B acute lymphoblastic leukemia, absence of the pathognomonic ETV6-RUNX1 rearrangement, and rearrangements or deletions of ETV6 and IKZF1 genes.


Monomorphic B-Cell Post-Transplant Lymphoproliferative Disorder

A clonal B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder arising as a result of post-transplant immunosuppression therapy. It is characterized by destructive infiltration of lymph nodes and extranodal sites by a monotonous population of transformed B-lymphocytes or plasma cells. The clonal cellular infiltrates fulfill the criteria for a diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma, or a plasma cell neoplasm.


Recurrent B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Philadelphia Chromosome Negative

The reemergence of B acute lymphoblastic leukemia, Philadelphia chromosome negative, after a period of remission.


Multiple Myeloma, Not Otherwise Specified

Multiple myelomas characterized by the absence of recurrent genetic abnormalities.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Not Otherwise Specified

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemias characterized by the absence of recurrent genetic abnormalities.


Extramedullary Disease in Plasma Cell Myeloma Involving the Central Nervous System

Multiple myeloma involving the central nervous system. It manifests with single or multiple intraparenchymal lesions and/or leptomeningeal involvement. Patients present with diffuse cerebral dysfunction and nerve paralysis. The prognosis is poor.


Stage A Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

Findings: Lymphocytosis only; Survival (months): more than 120. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia with Unmutated Immunoglobulin Heavy Chain Variable-Region Gene

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia characterized by the absence of somatic hypermutation within the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region of neoplastic clones. Patients have a significantly worse prognosis as compared to those with mutated immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region rearrangements.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with Mutated ZEB2 (p.H1038R)

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with mutations in the ZEB2 gene that encode a histidine to arginine amino acid substitution at codon 1038. This variation appears to phenocopy the IGH-CEBPE gene fusion. This is a provisional entity.


Refractory B-Cell Prolymphocytic Leukemia

B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia that is resistant to treatment.


Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia- Binet Staging System

A term that refers to the staging of chronic lymphocytic leukemia according to Binet staging system. This system is in wide use outside the United States.


Chronic lymphocytic leukemia stage 4

Risk: High; Findings: Lymphocytosis and platelets less than 100,000/microliter; Survival (months): 30. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


Cutaneous B Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma

B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma that arises from the skin.


Recurrent Extraosseous Plasmacytoma

The reemergence of extraosseous plasmacytoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Solitary Plasmacytoma

The reemergence of solitary plasmacytoma after a period of remission.


Stage B Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

Findings: Lymphocytosis and adenopathy; Survival (months): 95. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


Plasma Cell Myeloma Post-Transplant Lymphoproliferative Disorder

A lymphoproliferative disorder that develops following an organ transplantation and exhibits multiple myeloma features.


Multiple Myeloma with Recurrent Genetic Abnormalities

Multiple myelomas characterized by the presence of recurring cytogenetic abnormalities.


Plasmacytoma-Like Post-Transplant Lymphoproliferative Disorder

A plasmacytoma-like hematologic malignancy that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 with Multilineage Involvement

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 and characterized by both lymphoblastic and differentiating myeloid cell proliferation.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with Germline IKZF1 Mutation

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia that results from germline mutation of the IKZF1 gene.


Chronic lymphocytic leukemia stage 2

Risk: Intermediate; Findings: Lymphocytosis, adenopathy, and enlarged spleen and/or liver; Survival (months): 72. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


Adult B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1

A B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during adulthood. It is characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts that carry a translocation between the BCR gene on chromosome 22 and the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9. It results in the production of the p190 kd or p210 kd fusion protein. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome.


Multiple Myeloma with CCND Family Translocation

Multiple myeloma characterized by the presence of a translocation involving a CCND family gene.


RISS Stage I Plasma Cell Myeloma

Serum beta-2-microglobulin less than 3.5 mg/L and serum albumin 3.5 g/dL or more and no high-risk cytogenetics and normal LDH. High risk cytogenetics consist of one or more of the following: del17p, t(4;14), or t(14;16). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


DS Stage IIB Plasma Cell Myeloma

Durie/Salmon stage II multiple myeloma associated with abnormal renal function (serum creatinine concentration greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL).


Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia with Plasmacytoid Differentiation

A chronic lymphocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of neoplastic lymphocytes with plasmacytoid morphology.


Near-Haploid B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with a near haploid karyotype.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with IKZF1 N159Y Mutation

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with IKZF1 missense mutation p.Asn159Tyr (N159Y).


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with UBTF-ATXN7L3/PAN3, CDX2 ("CDX2/UBTF")

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with concomitant CDX2 deregulation and expression of the chimeric UBTF-ATXN7L3 fusion oncoprotein. It usually affects female adolescents and young adults. The prognosis is poor following treatment with conventional chemotherapy.


B acute lymphoblastic leukemia with DUX4 rearrangement

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with DUX4 gene rearrangement. The prognosis is good.


Extramedullary Disease in Plasma Cell Myeloma

Infiltration of organs and soft tissues by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma. Skin, liver, lymph nodes, pleura, and central nervous system are the most frequently affected sites.


Sinonasal Plasmacytoma

A plasmacytoma that arises in the sinonasal tract.


DS Stage IIA Plasma Cell Myeloma

Durie/Salmon stage II multiple myeloma associated with a relatively normal renal function (serum creatinine concentration < 2.0 mg/dL).


Progressive Hairy Cell Leukemia Initial Treatment

A hairy cell leukemia requiring initial treatment because of the presence of signs of progression.  Signs of progression include cytopenia (especially if symptomatic), increasing splenomegaly, and infectious complications.  Therapy is not necessary if the patients are asymptomatic and the blood counts are maintained in an acceptable range.


Refractory Transformed Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia which has undergone histologic transformation to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (Richter's transformation) and has become resistant to treatment.


B Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma with MYC Rearrangement

B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma associated with MYC gene rearrangement. The prognosis is poor.


Primary cutaneous plasmacytoma

A plasmacytoma that arises in the skin.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with PAX5 Alteration

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with PAX5 gene alteration, including rearrangements, point mutations, and intragenic lesions. This is a provisional entity.


B Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma with TCF3-HLF Rearrangement

An exceptionally rare childhood B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma associated with TCF3-HLF gene rearrangement resulting in the formation of TCF3-HLF chimeric transcription factor. The prognosis is poor.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, BCR-ABL1-Like, JAK-STAT Activated

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like associated with aberrant activation of the JAK-STAT signaling pathway.


Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia with Immunoglobulin Heavy Chain Variable-Region Gene Somatic Hypermutation

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of somatic hypermutation within the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region of neoplastic clones. Patients have a better prognosis as compared to those with unmutated immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region rearrangements.


Plasma cell myeloma refractory

Multiple myeloma that is resistant to treatment.


Testicular Plasmacytoma

A rare plasmacytoma that arises in the testis. At presentation the involvement is usually unilateral.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with Germline PAX5 Mutation

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia that results from germline mutation of the PAX5 gene.


DS Stage II Plasma Cell Myeloma

Multiple myeloma that fits in neither stage I nor stage III.  Estimated myeloma cell mass: 0.6 to 1.2 trillion (1012)/m2 (intermediate burden).  The following subclassification of stages is used: a. Creatinine less than 2.0 mg/dL, b. Creatinine greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL.  Impaired renal function worsens prognosis regardless of stage.  Note that the newer International Staging System defines stage II quite differently: Beta-2-microglobulin less than 3.5 and albumin less than 3.5 or beta-2-microglobulin 3.5 to less than 5.5 (median survival of 44 months).  (PDQ)


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with MEF2D Rearrangement

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with MEF2D gene rearrangement. The prognosis is poor.


Chronic lymphocytic leukemia refractory

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia that is resistant to treatment.


Recurrent B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1

The reemergence of B acute lymphoblastic leukemia with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 after a period of remission.


Extramedullary Disease in Plasma Cell Myeloma Involving the Uterine Corpus

Infiltration of the uterine corpus by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma.


Childhood B Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma

B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma that occurs during childhood.


Multiple Myeloma with t(11;14)(q13;q32)

Multiple myeloma characterized by the presence of t(11;14)(q13;q32). It is the most common immunoglobulin heavy chain translocation found in multiple myeloma and results in CCND1 overexpression.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with BCR-ABL1-Like Features

B acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by a gene-expression profile similar to that of BCR-ABL1-positive B acute lymphoblastic leukemia, absence of the pathognomonic BCR-ABL1 rearrangement, alterations of lymphoid transcription factor genes, and a poor outcome.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, BCR-ABL1-Like, ABL1 Rearranged

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like associated with ABL1 gene rearrangement.


Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia- Modified Rai Staging System

A term that refers to the staging of chronic lymphocytic leukemia according to modified Rai staging system. This system is mainly used in North America.


Chronic lymphocytic leukemia stage 3

Risk: High; Findings: Lymphocytosis and hemoglobin less than 11 g/dL; Survival (months): 30. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


RISS Stage II Plasma Cell Myeloma

Not stage I or III. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


Low-Hypodiploid B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with a low hypodiploid karyotype.


Plasma Cell Myeloma by ISS Stage

A header term that refers to the staging of multiple myeloma according to the International Staging System.


Recurrent Burkitt Leukemia

The reemergence of Burkitt leukemia after a period of remission.


Plasma Cell Post-Transplant Lymphoproliferative Disorder

A plasma cell neoplasm that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation.


Plasma Cell Myeloma by RISS Stage

A staging system for multiple myeloma based on the Revised International Staging System (RISS) criteria. This staging system does not apply to smoldering multiple myeloma (no AJCC staging system), monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (no AJCC staging system), and Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (no AJCC staging system). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with Germline Predisposition

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia that results from germline gene mutations. This category includes B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia with germline PAX5 mutation and B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia with germline IKZF1 mutation.


B acute lymphoblastic leukemia with PAX5 P80R mutation

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with PAX5 P80R mutation.


Adult Burkitt Leukemia

The leukemic counterpart of Burkitt lymphoma occurring in adults.  The characteristic Burkitt cells are seen in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood.  This is an aggressive leukemia.


ISS Stage II Plasma Cell Myeloma

Multiple myeloma with blood levels of beta-2-microglobulin between 3.5 and 5.5 mg/L.


Plasmacytoma anaplastic

A plasmacytoma characterized by the presence of malignant plasma cells with anaplastic features.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with MYC Rearrangement

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with MYC gene rearrangement. The prognosis is poor.


Refractory Burkitt Leukemia

Burkitt leukemia resistant to treatment.


Advanced B-Cell Malignant Neoplasm

A B-cell malignant neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Multiple Myeloma with NSD2 Translocation

Multiple myeloma characterized by the presence of a translocation involving the NSD2 gene.


Recurrent Transformed Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

The reemergence of chronic lymphocytic leukemia transformed to aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (Richter's transformation) after a period of remission.


Extramedullary Disease in Plasma Cell Myeloma Involving the Skin

Infiltration of the skin by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with ZNF384 Rearrangement

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with ZNF384 gene rearrangement. The prognosis is variable.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 with Lymphoid Only Involvement

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 and characterized by lymphoblastic proliferation without differentiating myeloid cell proliferation.


Stage C Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

Findings: Lymphocytosis, adenopathy, and enlarged spleen and/or liver; Survival (months): 72. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


Cutaneous Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

A chronic lymphocytic leukemia that affects the skin.


DS Stage III Plasma Cell Myeloma

Multiple myeloma with one or more of the following: 1. Hemoglobin less than 8.5 g/dL. 2. Serum calcium greater than 12.0 mg/dL. 3. More than three lytic bone lesions. 4. High M protein production as shown by: a. IgG greater than 7.0 g/dL. b. IgA greater than 5.0 g/dL. c. Urinary kappa or lamda greater than 12.0 g/24 hours. Estimated myeloma cell mass: greater than 1.2 trillion (1012)/m2 (high burden). The following subclassification of stages is used: a. Creatinine less than 2.0 mg/dL. b. Creatinine greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL. Serum beta-2-microglobulin has been shown to be a reliable marker for prognosis. Since the great majority of symptomatic myeloma patients are classified as stage III by the Durie/Salmon criteria, this staging system has not proven to be very useful for identifying the patients with intermediate and poor prognosis. Note that the newer International Staging System defines stage III quite differently: Beta-2-microglobulin greater than or equal to 5.5 (median survival of 29 months). (PDQ)


DS Stage I Plasma Cell Myeloma

Multiple myeloma with all of the following: 1. Hemoglobin greater than 10 g/Dl, 2. Normal serum calcium, 3. Normal bone structure, 4. Low monoclonal (or myeloma) protein (M protein) production as shown by: a. IgG less than 5.0 g/dL, b. IgA less than 3.0 g/dL, c. Urinary kappa or lamda less than 4 g/24 hours. Estimated myeloma cell mass: less than 0.6 trillion (1012)/m2 (low burden). The following subclassification of stages is used: a. Creatinine less than 2.0 mg/dL, b. Creatinine greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL. Impaired renal function worsens prognosis regardless of stage. Note that the newer International Staging System defines stage I quite differently: Beta-2-microglobulin less than 3.5 and albumin greater than or equal to 3.5 (median survival of 62 months). (PDQ)


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Philadelphia Chromosome Negative

A B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia (B-ALL) that does not have the cytogenetic abnormality t(9;22)(q34;q11.2). Most cases of B-ALL do not have this translocation.


DS Stage IIIA Plasma Cell Myeloma

Durie/Salmon stage III multiple myeloma associated with a relatively normal renal function (serum creatinine concentration < 2.0 mg/dL).


B Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma with ETV6-RUNX1-Like Features

B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma characterized by a gene-expression profile similar to that of ETV6-RUNX1-positive B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma, absence of the pathognomonic ETV6-RUNX1 rearrangement, and rearrangements or deletions of ETV6 and IKZF1 genes.


Recurrent B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

The reemergence of B acute lymphoblastic leukemia after a period of remission.


RISS Stage III Plasma Cell Myeloma

Serum beta-2-microglobulin 5.5 mg/L or more and high-risk cytogenetics and/or high LDH. High risk cytogenetics consist of one or more of the following: del17p, t(4;14), or t(14;16). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia Associated with Down Syndrome

A B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs in patients with Down syndrome. It usually affects young children, but it can occur in adults as well. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome. Cases of T-acute lymphoblastic leukemia in patients with Down syndrome have not been reported.


Hyperdiploid B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

A B-cell acute leukemia characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts which contain more than 50 and usually less than 66 chromosomes. It is commonly seen in children and rarely in adults. It has a favorable clinical outcome.


B Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma, Not Otherwise Specified

B-lymphoblastic leukemias/lymphomas characterized by the absence of recurrent genetic abnormalities.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with NUTM1 Rearrangement

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with NUTM1 gene rearrangement. The prognosis is good.


ISS Stage III Plasma Cell Myeloma

Multiple myeloma with beta-2-microglobulin greater than or equal to 5.5 (median survival of 29 months).  Note that the older Durie/Salmon staging system defines stage III quite differently. (PDQ)


DS Stage IB Plasma Cell Myeloma

Durie/Salmon stage I multiple myeloma associated with abnormal renal function (serum creatinine concentration greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL).


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, BCR-ABL1-Like, ABL Class Rearranged

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like associated with rearrangement of an ABL class gene (e.g., ABL1, ABL2, CSF1R, PDGFRA, and PDGFRB).


Recurrent B-Cell Prolymphocytic Leukemia

The reemergence of a B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia after a period of remission.


Transformed Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia to Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma

Histologic transformation of an indolent chronic lymphocytic leukemia to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.


Extramedullary Disease in Plasma Cell Myeloma Involving the Kidney

Infiltration of the kidney by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma.


Multiple Myeloma with Hyperdiploidy

Multiple myeloma characterized by the presence of plasma cells in which the chromosomal number is greater than the normal diploid number.


Chronic lymphocytic leukemia stage 0

Risk: Low; Findings: Lymphocytosis only; Survival (months): more than 120. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


Refractory B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Philadelphia Chromosome Negative

B acute lymphoblastic leukemia, Philadelphia chromosome negative, that does not respond to treatment.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with ZNF362 Rearrangement

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with ZNF362 gene rearrangement. The prognosis is variable.


Refractory B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia with BCR-ABL1-Like Features

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like that does not respond to treatment.


ISS Stage I Plasma Cell Myeloma

Multiple myeloma with beta-2-microglobulin less than 3.5 and albumin greater than or equal to 3.5 (median survival of 62 months).  Note that the older Durie/Salmon staging system defines stage I quite differently. (PDQ)


B-lymphoblastic leukemia lymphoma BCR-ABL1-like

B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma characterized by a gene-expression profile similar to that of BCR-ABL1-positive B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma, absence of the pathognomonic BCR-ABL1 rearrangement, alterations of lymphoid transcription factor genes, and a poor outcome.


B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, BCR-ABL1-Like, Not Otherwise Specified

B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like in which further genetic/molecular characterization is not available.


Plasma Cell Myeloma by DS Stage

A header term that refers to the staging of multiple myeloma according to the Durie/Salmon staging system.


Childhood Burkitt Leukemia

The leukemic counterpart of Burkitt lymphoma occurring in children.  The characteristic Burkitt cells are seen in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood.  This is an aggressive leukemia.


peri-centrosomal recycling endosome

A recycling endosome that is organized around the microtubule organizing center, close to the nucleus. This is the main recycling endosome of most cells. It receives input from the Golgi as well as recycled molecules from early endosomes.


Penile Undifferentiated Pleomorphic Sarcoma

A rare undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that occurs in the penis.


Non-Neoplastic Vision Disorder

A non-neoplastic disorder that causes a disturbance in normal vision. Representative examples include amblyopia, astigmatism, myopia, and cataracts.


Color Blindness, Inherited

Genetic based difficulty in distinguishing colors.


Optical Illusion

The visual perception of an image that differs from the reality of the image.


Advanced Extracranial Malignant Solid Neoplasm

A malignant solid neoplasm that arises from any anatomic site other than the brain and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Ciliary Body Adenocarcinoma

An adenocarcinoma arising from the pigmented or non-pigmented ciliary epithelium.


Stage IIB Uveal Melanoma AJCC v7

Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0).  T2b: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement.  T3a: Iris: Tumor confluent with or extending into the ciliary body, choroid, or both, with sclera extension and secondary glaucoma. Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IIA Uveal Melanoma AJCC v7

Stage IIA includes: (T1b-d, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0). T1b: Iris: Tumor limited to the iris more than 3 clock hours in size.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement.  T1c: Iris: Tumor limited to the iris with secondary glaucoma.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T1d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T2a: Iris: Tumor confluent with or extending into the ciliary body, choroid, or both, with secondary glaucoma.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)


Metastatic Choroid Melanoma

Choroid melanoma that has spread from its primary site to another anatomic site.


Metastatic Malignant Neoplasm in the Uvea

A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the uvea from another anatomic site.


Uveal Melanocytoma

A subtype of ciliary body, iris, and choroidal nevi. It is intensely pigmented and composed of large, plump, polyhedral cells.


Choroid Spindle Cell Type A Melanoma

A choroid melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with slender nuclei and no visible nucleoli.


Uveal Melanoma by Gene Expression Profile


Locally Advanced Unresectable Uveal Melanoma

Uveal melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection.


Uveal Spindle Cell Type A Melanoma

A uveal melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with slender nuclei and no visible nucleoli.


Stage III Uveal Melanoma AJCC v7

Stage III includes: IIIA (T2c-d, N0, M0); (T3b-c, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIIB (T3d, N0, M0); (T4b-c, N0, M0); IIIC (T4d-e, N0, M0).  T2c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T2d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T3b: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement. T3c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T4a: Iris: Tumor with extrascleral extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension.  T3d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T4b: Iris: Tumor with extrascleral extension more than 5 mm in diameter.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement.  T4c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T4d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T4e: Ciliary body and choroid: Any tumor size category with extraocular extension more than 5 mm in diameter.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)


Uveal Class 2 Melanoma

Gene expression profiling that classifies uveal melanomas into a high-grade group.


Uveal Class 1a Melanoma

Uveal melanoma with low metastatic risk as defined by gene expression profiling.


Ciliary Body Nevus

A benign nevus that arises from the ciliary body. Only a small percentage of cases progress to ciliary body melanoma.


Stage IIIC Uveal Melanoma AJCC v7

Stage IIIC includes: T4d-e, N0, M0.  T4d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T4e: Ciliary body and choroid: Any tumor size category with extraocular extension more than 5 mm in diameter.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)


Refractory Uveal Melanoma

Uveal melanoma that is resistant to treatment.


Choroidal Ganglioneuroma

A rare ganglioneuroma that arises from the choroid.


Choroidal and Ciliary Body Melanoma by AJCC v8 Stage

A term that refers to the staging of choroidal and ciliary body melanoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system.


Unresectable Uveal Melanoma

Uveal melanoma that is not amenable to surgical resection.


Stage IIB Choroidal and Ciliary Body Melanoma AJCC v8

Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0).  T2b: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement. T3a: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Choroid Spindle Cell Type B Melanoma

A choroid melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with larger nuclei and distinct nucleoli.


Stage IIIB Choroidal and Ciliary Body Melanoma AJCC v8

Stage IIIB includes: (T3d, N0, M0); (T4b-c, N0, M0). T3d: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter.  T4b: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement. T4c: Tumor size category 4 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 8th ed.)


Uveal Class 1b Melanoma

Uveal melanoma with intermediate metastatic risk as defined by gene expression profiling.


Ciliary Body Spindle Cell Type B Melanoma

A ciliary body melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with larger nuclei and distinct nucleoli.


Stage II Uveal Melanoma AJCC v7

Stage II includes: IIA (T1b-d, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0); IIB (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0).  T1b: Iris: Tumor limited to the iris more than 3 clock hours in size.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement.  T1c: Iris: Tumor limited to the iris with secondary glaucoma.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T1d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T2a: Iris: Tumor confluent with or extending into the ciliary body, choroid, or both, with secondary glaucoma.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. T2b: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement.  T3a: Iris: Tumor confluent with or extending into the ciliary body, choroid, or both, with sclera extension and secondary glaucoma. Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage III Choroidal and Ciliary Body Melanoma AJCC v8

Stage III includes: IIIA (T2c-d, N0, M0); (T3b-c, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIIB (T3d, N0, M0); (T4b-c, N0, M0); IIIC: (T4d-e, N0, M0). T2c: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T2d: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T3b: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement. T3c: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T4a: Tumor size category 4 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. T3d: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter.  T4b: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement. T4c: Tumor size category 4 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T4d: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T4e: Any tumor size category with extraocular extension more than 5 mm in largest diameter. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 8th ed.)


Stage I Uveal Melanoma AJCC v7

Stage I includes: T1a, N0, M0.  T1a: Iris: Tumor limited to the iris not more than 3 clock hours in size.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IIA Choroidal and Ciliary Body Melanoma AJCC v8

Stage IIA includes: (T1b-d, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0).  T1b: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement.  T1c: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter.  T1d: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T2a: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Stage I Choroidal and Ciliary Body Melanoma AJCC v8

Stage I includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 8th ed.)


Stage IV Choroidal and Ciliary Body Melanoma AJCC v8

Stage IV includes: (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1a-c). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis or discrete tumor deposits in the orbit. M0: No distant metastasis. M1a: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 3 cm or less. M1b: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 3.1-8.0 cm. M1c: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 8.1 cm or more.  (AJCC 8th ed.)


Ciliary Body Spindle Cell Type A Melanoma

A ciliary body melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with slender nuclei and no visible nucleoli.


Stage IIIB Uveal Melanoma AJCC v7

Stage IIIB includes: (T3d, N0, M0); (T4b-c, N0, M0).  T3d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T4b: Iris: Tumor with extrascleral extension more than 5 mm in diameter.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement.  T4c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)


Metastatic Uveal Melanoma

Uveal melanoma that has spread from its primary site to another anatomic site.


Iris Mixed Cell Melanoma

A melanoma arising from the iris. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of spindle A melanoma cells, spindle B melanoma cells, and epithelioid melanoma cells.


Stage IV Uveal Melanoma AJCC v7

Stage IV includes: (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1a-c).  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M1a: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 3 cm or less.  M1b: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 3.1-8.0 cm.  M1c: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 8.0 cm or more.  (AJCC 7th ed.)


Benign neoplasm of uveal tract

A neoplasm that arises from the uvea and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential..


Stage IIIC Choroidal and Ciliary Body Melanoma AJCC v8

Stage IIIC includes: T4d-e, N0, M0. T4d: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T4e: Any tumor size category with extraocular extension more than 5 mm in largest diameter. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 8th ed.)


Metastatic Malignant Neoplasm in the Iris

A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the iris from another anatomic site.


Stage II Choroidal and Ciliary Body Melanoma AJCC v8

Stage II includes: IIA (T1b-d, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0); IIB (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0).  T1b: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement.  T1c: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter.  T1d: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T2a: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. T2b: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement. T3a: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Uveal Melanoma by AJCC v7 Stage

A term that refers to the staging of uveal melanoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system.


Uveal Spindle Cell Type B Melanoma

A uveal melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with larger nuclei and distinct nucleoli.


Uveal Class 1 Melanoma

Gene expression profiling that classifies uveal melanomas into a low-grade group.


Uveal Nevus

A benign nevus derived from melanocytes of the uveal tract. Only a small percentage of cases progress to uveal melanoma.


Advanced Uveal Melanoma

Uveal melanoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Iridociliary Melanoma

Melanoma that affects both the iris and ciliary body.


Iris Epithelioid Cell Melanoma

An iris melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes.


Metastatic malignant neoplasm to ciliary body

A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the ciliary body from another anatomic site.


Conjunctival keratoacanthomas

A rapidly growing neoplasm that arises from the conjunctiva. It is characterized by a proliferation of squamous cells, acanthosis, keratinization, dysplasia, increased mitotic activity, and a central crater filled with keratinocytes. It is considered a variant of well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma with distinct clinical behavior.


Conjunctival Spindle Cell Carcinoma

A variant of conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle cells and/or pleomorphic cells.


Stage II Fallopian Tube Cancer AJCC v8

Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor involving fallopian tubes with pelvic extension below pelvic brim. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)


Stage IIA Fallopian Tube Cancer AJCC v8

Stage IIA includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Fallopian tube cancer with extension and/or implants on the uterus and/or fallopian tube(s) and/or ovaries. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)


Stage IIB Fallopian Tube Cancer AJCC v8

Stage IIB includes: T2b, N0, M0. T2b: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor extension to and/or implants on other pelvic tissues. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)


Laryngeal Paraganglioma

An extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia adjacent to the larynx.  Patients may present with hoarseness and dysphagia.


Finding by Site or System

A term that refers to the classification of a clinical or laboratory finding according to the anatomic site or system that is involved.


Muscle Weakness Right-Sided

A reduction in the strength of the muscles in the right side of the body.


Congenital urinary tract obstruction

An impediment to the flow of urine along the urinary tract, which is present at birth.


Atrial Couplet by ECG Finding

An electrocardiographic finding in which two premature atrial complexes occur sequentially. (CDISC)


Right Bundle Branch Block by ECG Finding

An electrocardiographic finding of a wide QRS complex with evidence of delayed conduction to the right ventricle, manifested by a widened initial portion of the QRS in V1 and V2, a widened S wave in V5, V6, I and aVL, and with QRS duration greater than or equal to 120 ms.  An RsR' complex is typically present in leads V1 and V2. (CDISC)


AV Block Second Degree Mobitz Type II by ECG Finding


Jejunal Obstruction

Blockage of the normal flow of the small intestinal contents in the jejunum.


Todd's Paralysis

A neurological condition experienced by individuals with epilepsy, in which a seizure is followed by a brief period of temporary paralysis.


Fallopian tube obstruction

Blockage of the normal flow of the contents in the fallopian tube.


Gastrointestinal stenosis

A narrowing or stricture within the digestive system.


Carpal Spasm

A spasmodic contraction of the muscles of the hands, especially the wrists, such as during alkalosis or tetany. (ACC/AHA)


New daily persistent headache

A bilateral, unremitting headache of mild to moderate intensity that occurs daily and may be associated with photophobia, phonophobia, or mild nausea.


Perforation of bladder

A rupture in the bladder wall due to traumatic or pathologic processes.


Pregnancy Finding

Symptoms, signs, diagnostic examinations or a test results in a pregnant mother.


AV Block Third Degree by ECG Finding

An electrocardiographic finding of complete failure of atrial electrical impulse conduction to the ventricles. This is manifested on the ECG by disassociation of atrial and ventricular rhythms. The atrial rate must be faster than the ventricular rate. (CDISC)


Hypotonic-hyporesponsive episode

Acute onset of unresponsiveness or diminished level of consciousness, associated with loss of muscle tone and pallor or cyanosis, that occurs within 48 hours after childhood immunizations. It is primarily associated with pertussis-containing vaccines administered to children under two years of age.


Subclavian vein stenosis

Narrowing of the lumen of the subclavian vein.


Obstruction of trachea

Blockage of the lumen of the trachea. Causes include secretions, foreign bodies, and tumors.


Damage of Vaginal Mucosa

Injury to vaginal mucosa.


Caries into Dentin

Tooth decay that extends through the enamel into the dentin layer.


Intrapartum Shock

Severe loss of blood pressure leading to inadequate tissue perfusion after the onset of labor but prior to the delivery of the fetus.


Neurogenic shock (disorder)

Shock resulting from neurogenic vasodilation, which can be produced by cerebral trauma or hemorrhage, spinal cord injury, deep general or spinal anesthesia, or toxic central nervous system depression.


Brachial plexus palsy due to birth trauma

Birth injury to the brachial plexus. It results in paralysis of the muscles of the shoulder, arm, and hand. It manifests as lack of mobility in the arm, usually in the first week of life. In the majority of cases there is spontaneous recovery.


Pedal Spasm

A spasmodic contraction of the muscles of the feet, especially the ankles, such as during alkalosis or tetany. (ACC/AHA)


Syncope due to Acquired Heart Lesion

A condition in which syncope occurs due to a disease process of the heart with which the patient was not born. (ACC/AHA)


Superficial injury of cornea

Trauma to the corneal epithelium.


Palsy

Muscle weakness or paralysis of neurologic origin.


Cardiac septal defect residual shunt

Irregular blood flow in the heart after surgical correction of a septal defect.


Shock, Traumatic

Any shock produced by trauma.


Psychogenic tremor

An involuntary, compulsive, repetitive stereotyped movement.


R Wave Abnormality by ECG Finding

An electrocardiographic finding of an atypical R wave within the QRS complex; it is due to a disturbance in the depolarization mechanism of the ventricular myocardium.


Infertility Related to Treatment

Infertility that is associated with a treatment.


Cardiogenic Shock Related to COVID-19

Cardiogenic shock in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19.


Normal Virilization

The normal development of male secondary sexual characteristics (such as hirsutism, deepening of the voice) in pubertal boys due to testosterone effects.


Dactylitis

Inflammation of the fingers or toes. This may be accompanied by pain and discoloration.


Insulin Coma

A hypoglycemia-induced comatose state resulting from a large dose of exogenous insulin.


Dissecting aortic aneurysm

A dissecting aneurysm formed between the intimal and medial layers of the aortic wall due to a tear in the tunica intima.


Venous Injury

Damage to a vein from traumatic or pathologic processes.


Persistent Atrial Flutter

An electrocardiographic finding of atrial flutter which is present during the entire recording.


Large Pleural Effusion

A pleural effusion that is typically characterized as more than one liter.


Pregnancy Outcome

Findings observed at the end of a pregnancy.


Maximum ST Segment Depression by ECG Finding

An electrocardiographic finding of the maximum depression of the ST segment, obtained from a set of measurements of the depression of the ST segment.


Hypotension due to Cardiac Dysfunction

A condition in which there is hypotension because of inadequate pumping function of the heart. (ACC/AHA)


Cerebral cyst

A fluid filled sac within the cerebrum. It is can be congenital, trauma related or secondary to another medical condition for example an infarction.


Intestinal Stoma Obstruction

A blockage of the intestinal stoma.


Injury of gastrointestinal tract

Trauma to the gastrointestinal tract or accessory organs of digestions.


Cyst of thyroid

Abnormal fluid filled sac within the thyroid gland.


Secondary pulmonary hypertension

Pulmonary hypertension that is caused by an underlying condition.


Reproductive System Finding

Symptoms, physical examination results, and/or laboratory test results related to the reproductive system.


Vaginal Perforation

A rupture in the vaginal wall due to traumatic or pathologic processes.


Intraoperative Arterial Injury

Damage to an artery during a surgical procedure.


Pregnancy Status

The pregnancy status of an individual.


High Grade Atrioventricular Block by ECG Finding

An electrocardiographic finding of intermittent failure of atrial electrical impulse conduction to the ventricles, characterized by two or more consecutive non-conducted P waves. (CDISC)


Ureter Compression

Narrowing of the luminal diameter of one or both ureters due to extrinsic pressure.


COVID-19-Associated Acute Liver Injury

Acute liver injury caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2).


Foreign body in esophagus

Extraneous material located within the esophagus.


Immunodeficiency due to Functional Defects

An indication that an immunodeficiency disorder is caused by the presence of immune cells that are dysfunctional.


Moderate Hepatic Insufficiency

Findings indicating moderate impairment of liver function.


Chronic Maternal Hypertension with Superimposed Preeclampsia

Chronic hypertension in association with preeclampsia.


Reproductive System Hemorrhage

Bleeding originating in the organs and tissue that aid in reproduction.


Cardiovascular injury

Trauma to the heart and/or blood vessels.


Urostomy Obstruction

Blockage of the urostomy.


Esophageal injury

Trauma to the esophagus.


Extreme Preterm Birth

Birth when a fetus is less than 28 weeks gestational age.


Sinus Bradycardia by ECG Finding

An electrocardiographic finding of abnormally slow heart rate with its origin in the sinus node. Thresholds for different age, gender, and patient populations exist. (CDISC)


Female Virilization

The development of male secondary sexual characteristics (such as hirsutism, deepening of the voice, or clitoral enlargement) in girls or adult females.


Vaginal obstruction

Congenital or acquired blockage of the vagina.


Anterior segment ischemia

Compromise of blood supply to the anterior segment of the eye.


Burn of esophagus

Thermal or caustic injury to the esophagus.


Spinal Meningeal Cyst

A cerebrospinal fluid-filled pouch or sac-like protrusion of the arachnoid, dura mater, or nerve root sheath which may contain neural tissue.


Eye and Ear Finding

Symptoms, physical examination results, and/or laboratory test results related to the organs of special sense.


Intrapartum Stillbirth

Fetal death greater than or equal to 20 weeks of gestation during labor with Apgar scores of 0 at 1 minute, 5 minutes and beyond.


Visual Halo

Hazy ring around bright lights seen by some patients with refractive error or optical defects, e.g. cataracts, or corneal swelling.


Injury of conjunctiva

Trauma to the conjunctiva of the eye.


Elective Abortion Finding

An abortion performed due to individual choice, in the absence of a harmful medical condition caused by pregnancy.


Leg Injuries

Trauma to the lower extremity, which is confined to the area between the hip and ankle joints.


Craniotabes

Softening of the skull seen in newborns due to incomplete mineralization.


Injury of colon

Trauma to the colon.


Fetal Heart Finding

An observation of the fetal heart that may or may not be abnormal.


Urethral cyst

A cystic lesion located in the urethra.


Pulmonary vein obstruction

Blockage of the lumen of the pulmonary vein.


Testosterone Excess

Abnormally high level of testosterone.


Ureteric Perforation

A rupture in the wall of the ureter due to traumatic or pathologic processes.


Minimum ST Segment Depression by ECG Finding

An electrocardiographic finding of the minimum depression of the ST segment, obtained from a set of measurements of the depression of the ST segment.


Urinary System Finding

Symptoms, physical examination results, and/or laboratory test results related to the urinary system.


Reperfusion Injury

Tissue damage caused when blood supply returns to tissue after a period of ischemia or lack of oxygen. The restoration of circulation results in inflammation and oxidative damage.


Cardiogenic Shock Stage D Related to COVID-19

Clinical signs of deteriorating cardiogenic shock in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. Failure to respond to initial interventions to restore adequate perfusion after 30 minutes. Further more intensive therapies are required, including the addition of mechanical circulatory support.


Undesired Nerve Stimulation

Unintended reaction in nervous system caused by electrical stimulation.


Carotenosis Cutis

Orange or yellow discoloration of the skin caused by excessive deposits of carotene.


Anticipatory Vomiting

A situation in which an individual vomits prior to a medical treatment, commonly chemotherapy, as part of a conditioned/learned response after having previously experienced nausea and/or vomiting as a direct result of that same (or a similar) treatment.


COVID-19-Associated Acute Gastrointestinal Tract Injury

Acute gastrointestinal tract injury caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2).


Enhanced Tendon Reflex

Greater than normal deep tendon reflexes.


Visceral Artery Ischemia

Decreased blood supply to the small or large intestine due to narrowing or blockage of a visceral (mesenteric) artery. The ischemia results to the damage of the intestinal tissues. It may be chronic, caused by atherosclerosis or acute, secondary to the formation of a thrombus or embolus in the mesenteric arterial lumen. In chronic ischemia, patients present with abdominal pain manifested in a short time after a meal and weight loss. In acute ischemia, patients present with sudden and acute abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, and blood in the stool.


Caries Restricted to Enamel

Tooth decay that is restricted to the enamel layer.


Adrenal Cyst

A cyst located in the adrenal gland.


Duodenal hemorrhage

Bleeding originating from the duodenum.


Congenital Neurogenic Bladder

Neurogenic bladder, the cause of which is present at birth.


AV Block Second Degree by ECG Finding

An electrocardiographic finding of intermittent failure of atrial electrical impulse conduction to the ventricles. This is manifest on the ECG by regular P waves which intermittently are not followed by QRS complexes. (CDISC)


Borderline hypertension

Blood pressure in the zone between the highest normal level and the level that is considered hypertensive.


Jacksonian Seizure

A partial motor seizure that begins in a single area of the body and progresses to include other areas on the same side of the body.


Oculocardiac Reflex

Slowing or cessation of the heart rate secondary to traction on the extraocular muscle.


Intraoperative cardiac valve injury

An intraoperative event that causes abnormal valve function; this is usually a tear in the leaflet or the chordae tendinae.


Rheumatic tricuspid valve stenosis

Tricuspid valve stenosis secondary to rheumatic fever.


Cardiogenic Shock with Distributive Shock Related to COVID-19