positive regulation of embryo sac central cell differentiation

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of embryo sac central cell differentiation.


negative regulation of embryo sac central cell differentiation

biolink:BiologicalProcess biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:Occurrent biolink:OntologyClass biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of embryo sac central cell differentiation.


gastrophrenic ligament

biolink:GrossAnatomicalStructure biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

The portion of the greater omentum that extends from the greater curvature of the stomach to the inferior surface of the diaphragm.


autosomal dominant nonsyndromic hearing loss 17

biolink:Disease biolink:DiseaseOrPhenotypicFeature biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:ThingWithTaxon

Any autosomal dominant nonsyndromic deafness in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the MYH9 gene.


Locally Advanced Unresectable Gallbladder Carcinoma

Gallbladder carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection.


biolink:MolecularActivity biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:Occurrent biolink:OntologyClass biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

Catalysis of the reaction: flavonol 3-O-beta-D-glucoside + malonyl-CoA = malonyl-flavonol 3-O-beta-D-glucoside + CoA.


mitotic anaphase A

The cell cycle phase during which the kinetochore microtubules shorten as chromosomes move toward the spindle poles as part of mitosis.


Stage IIIA Uveal Melanoma AJCC v7

Stage IIIA includes: (T2c-d, N0, M0); (T3b-c, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0).  T2c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T2d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T3b: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement. T3c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T4a: Iris: Tumor with extrascleral extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)


positive regulation of P-type sodium:potassium-exchanging transporter activity

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of sodium:potassium-exchanging ATPase activity.


Toll receptor ligand protein activation cascade

A protein activation cascade that generates the active Toll receptor ligand and consists of the cascade of enzymatic reactions initiated by extracellular recognition factors, leading to the cleavage of the inactive form of spatzle family of ligands.


acne keloid

A chronic eruption of fibrous papules that develop and fuse to form a thick sclerotic, hypertrophic band at a site of deep folliculitis, usually along the posterior hairline of the scalp. It is most commonly seen in men of African descent.


Asperger syndrome

A disorder most often diagnosed in the pediatric years in which the individual displays marked impairment in social interaction and a repetitive, stereotyped pattern of behavior. The individual, however, displays no delay in language or cognitive development, which differentiates Asperger Syndrome from autism.


Femoropopliteal Artery Segment

biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

The segment of the arterial system that includes the popliteal artery and its origin from the femoral artery.


positive regulation of fertilization

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of fertilization.


rod bipolar cell differentiation

The process in which a relatively unspecialized cell acquires the specialized features of a rod bipolar cell.


cone retinal bipolar cell differentiation

The process in which a relatively unspecialized cell acquires the specialized features of a cone retinal bipolar cell.


epithelium of bronchus

An epithelium that is part of a bronchus [Automatically generated definition].


pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A simple columnar epithelium that looks stratified but is not, because its cells are arranged with their nuclei at different levels.


pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

Epithelium composed of a single layer of cells, appearing as layered because the column-shaped cells vary in height so the nuclei are at different levels. The basal portions of all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. It lines the respiratory system and the male reproductive tract. The cilia in the respiratory tract are motile, while the stereocilia in the male reproductive tract are immobile.


epithelium of trachea

The epithelial lining of the trachea which contains numerous ciliated cells.


seminal vesicle epithelium

An epithelium that is part of a seminal vesicle [Automatically generated definition].


vas deferens epithelium

An epithelium that is part of a vas deferens [Automatically generated definition].


nasal cavity respiratory epithelium

An epithelium that is part of the respiratory segment of the nasal mucosa [Automatically generated definition].


skin of neck

A zone of skin that is part of a neck [Automatically generated definition].


dextrofloxacin

The (R)-enantiomer of ofloxacin.


Either of the two diastereoisomers of 1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine in which the imidazol-1-ylmethyl group and the aryloxymethyl group are in a cis relationship to each other - i.e. they are both on the same side of the plane of the dioxolane ring. The antifungal drug ketoconazole is a racemic mixture of the two cis diastereoisomers.


Either of the two diastereoisomers of 1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine in which the imidazol-1-ylmethyl group and the aryloxymethyl group are in a trans relationship to each other - i.e. they are on opposite sides of the plane of the dioxolane ring. (N.B. The antifungal drug ketoconazole is a racemic mixture of the two cis diastereoisomers.)


(S)-gatifloxacin

The (S)-enantiomer of gatifloxacin.


aripiprazole lauroxil

A dodecanoate ester obtained by formal condensation of the carboxy group of dodecanoic acid with the hydroxy group of 7-{4-[4-(2,3-dichlorophenyl)piperazin-1-yl]butoxy}-2-oxo-3,4-dihydroquinolin-1(2H)-yl]methanol. A prodrug for aripiprazole, it is used for treatment of schizophrenia.


difloxacin

A quinolone that is pefloxacin in which the ethyl group at position 1 of the quinolone has been replaced by a p-fluorophenyl group. A broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, it is used (usually as the monohydrochloride salt) for the treatment of bacterial infections in dogs.


A 1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine in which the dioxolane ring has R configuration at positions 2 and 4.


(R)-gatifloxacin

The (R)-enantiomer of gatifloxacin.


sulfociprofloxacin

An organosulfonic acid that is ciprofloxacin  carrying a sulfo group at position 4 of the piperazine ring. It is a metabolite of ciprofloxacin.


(R)-temafloxacin

1-(2,4-difluorophenyl)-6-fluoro-7-(3-methylpiperazin-1-yl)-4-oxo-1,4-dihydroquinoline-3-carboxylic acid that has R configuration.


(S)-temafloxacin

1-(2,4-difluorophenyl)-6-fluoro-7-(3-methylpiperazin-1-yl)-4-oxo-1,4-dihydroquinoline-3-carboxylic acid that has S configuration.


temafloxacin

A racemate comprising equimolar amounts of (R)- and (S)-temafloxacin. Both enantiomers both exhibit similar pharmacological profiles. Temafloxacin was briefly used (either as the free base or as the hydrochloride salt) as an antibacterial drug but was withdrawn worldwide in 1992 following reports of serious side effects, including severe hypoglycaemia, haemolytic anaemia, liver and kidney dysfunction, anaphylaxis, and death.


A dioxolane that is 1,3-dioxolane which is substituted at positions 2, 2, and 4 by 2,4-dichlorophenyl, 1H-1,2,4-triazol-1-ylmethyl, and [4-(4-isopropylpiperazin-1-yl)phenoxy]methyl groups, respectively.


A cis-1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine which dioxolane moiety has (2R,4S)-configuration.


enrofloxacin

A quinolinemonocarboxylic acid that is 1,4-dihydroquinoline-3-carboxylic acid substituted by an oxo group at position 4, a fluoro group at position 6, a cyclopropyl group at position 1 and a 4-ethylpiperazin-1-yl group at position 7. It is a veterinary antibacterial agent used for the treatment of pets.


A 1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine in which the dioxolane ring has S configuration at positions 2 and 4.


metabolite of ciprofloxacin


A cis-1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine which dioxolane moiety has (2S,4R)-configuration.


epithelial cell migration involved in mesonephric proximal tubule morphogenesis

The orderly movement of epithelial cells within a renal tubule that contributes to mesonephric proximal tubule morphogenesis.


epithelial cell migration involved in proximal tubule morphogenesis

The orderly movement of epithelial cells within a renal tubule that contributes to proximal tubule morphogenesis.


epithelial cell migration involved in metanephric proximal tubule morphogenesis

The orderly movement of epithelial cells within a renal tubule that contributes to metanephric proximal tubule morphogenesis.


isobutyryl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency

An inborn error of valine metabolism. The prevalence is unknown. Only one symptomatic patient (with anemia, failure to thrive, dilated cardiomyopathy and plasma carnitine deficiency) has been described so far, but several series of patients have been identified through newborn screening programs relying on detection of increased C(4)-carnitine levels by tandem mass spectrometry. The disorder is caused by mutations in the ACAD8 gene (11q25).


succinyl-CoA biosynthetic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of succinyl-CoA.


posterior auricular vein

The posterior auricular vein begins upon the side of the head, in a plexus which communicates with the tributaries of the occipital vein and superficial temporal veins. It descends behind the auricula, and joins the posterior division of the posterior facial vein to form the external jugular. It receive the stylomastoid vein, and some tributaries from the cranial surface of the auricula.


auricular vein

Any vein serving the ear region.


anterior auricular vein

The anterior auricular veins are veins which drain the anterior aspect of the external ear. [WP,unvetted].


Metastatic rectal adenocarcinoma

An adenocarcinoma that arises from the rectum and has metastasized to another anatomic site.


Locally Advanced Unresectable Rectal Adenocarcinoma

A rectal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection.


Locally Advanced Rectal Adenocarcinoma

Rectal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes.


negative regulation of tau-protein kinase activity

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of tau-protein kinase activity.


positive regulation of tau-protein kinase activity

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of tau-protein kinase activity.


skin of ankle

A zone of skin that is part of an ankle [Automatically generated definition].


mixed phenotype acute leukemia with BCR-ABL1

An acute biphenotypic leukemia that is characterized by blasts that also carry the translocation t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2) by karyotypic analysis or the BCR-ABL1 translocation by FISH or PCR.


Acute Leukemia of Ambiguous Lineage with Defining Genetic Abnormalities

Acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage characterized by the presence of defined genetic alterations.


mixed phenotype acute leukemia with t(v;11q23.3)

A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts carry a translocation between the KMT2A gene at 11q23.3 and another gene partner. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.


PUM1-associated developmental disability-ataxia-seizure syndrome


developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 2

Any early infantile epileptic encephalopathy in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the CDKL5 gene.


spastic paraplegia-severe developmental delay-epilepsy syndrome

Spastic paraplegia-severe developmental delay-epilepsy syndrome is a rare, genetic, complex spastic paraplegia disorder characterized by an infantile-onset of psychomotor developmental delay with severe intellectual disability and poor speech acquisition, associated with seizures (mostly myoclonic), muscular hypotonia which may be noted at birth, and slowly progressive spasticity in the lower limbs leading to severe gait disturbances. Ocular abnormalities and incontinence are commonly associated. Other symptoms may include verbal dyspraxia, hypogenitalism, macrocephaly and sensorineural hearing loss, as well as dystonic movements and ataxia with upper limb involvement.


infantile-onset mesial temporal lobe epilepsy with severe cognitive regression

A rare monogenic disease with infantile-onset pharmacoresistant focal seizures of mesial temporal lobe onset manifesting with unresponsiveness, hypertonia and automatisms and cognitive regression soon after seizure onset leading to severe intellectual disability with behavioral abnormalities.


focal epilepsy-intellectual disability-cerebro-cerebellar malformation

Focal epilepsy-intellectual disability-cerebro-cerebellar malformation is a rare, genetic neurological disorder characterized by early infantile-onset of seizures, borderline to moderate intellectual disability, cerebellar features including dysarthria and ataxia and cerebellar atrophy and cortical thickening observed on MRI imaging. Seizures are typically focal (with prominent eye blinking, facial and limb jerking), precipitated by fever and often commence with an oral sensory aura (anesthetized tongue sensation). When not properly controlled by anti-epileptic medication, weekly frequency and persistance into adult life is observed.


Mowat-Wilson syndrome due to a ZEB2 point mutation


autosomal recessive spinocerebellar ataxia 15

Any autosomal recessive cerebellar ataxia-epilepsy-intellectual disability syndrome in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the RUBCN gene.


Rett syndrome, congenital variant

An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the FOXG1 gene, encoding forkhead box protein G1. It is the most severe form of Rett syndrome, and typically manifests within the first three months of life.


X-linked dominant intellectual disability-epilepsy syndrome


Mowat-Wilson syndrome due to monosomy 2q22


FOXG1 disorder

A monogenic disease that has material basis in mutation in the FOXG1 gene.


developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 8


developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 9

Female restricted epilepsy with intellectual disability is a rare X-linked epilepsy syndrome characterized by febrile or afebrile seizures (mainly tonic-clonic, but also absence, myoclonic, and atonic) starting in the first years of life and, in most cases, developmental delay and intellectual disability of variable severity. Behavioral disturbances (e.g. autistic features, hyperactivity, and aggressiveness) are also frequently associated. This disease affects exclusively females, with male carriers being unaffected, despite an X-linked inheritance.


syndromic X-linked intellectual disability Hedera type

X-linked intellectual disability, Hedera type is a rare X-linked intellectual disability syndrome characterized by an onset in infancy of delayed motor and speech milestones, generalized tonic-clonic seizures and drop attacks, and mild to moderate intellectual disability. Additional, less common manifestations include scoliosis, ataxia (resulting in progressive gait disturbance), and bilateral pes planovalgus. Physical appearance is normal with no dysmorphic features reported.


autosomal recessive cerebellar ataxia - epilepsy - intellectual disability syndrome


intellectual developmental disorder with dysmorphic facies, seizures, and distal limb anomalies

IDDFSDA is an autosomal recessive severe multisystem disorder characterized by poor overall growth, developmental delay, early-onset seizures, intellectual disability, and dysmorphic features. There is phenotypic variability. The most severely affected patients have a neurodevelopmental disorder with microcephaly, absent speech, and inability to walk, and they require feeding tubes. Some patients have congenital heart defects or nonspecific abnormalities on brain imaging. Less severely affected individuals have mild to moderate intellectual disability with normal speech and motor development (summary by {1:Santiago-Sim et al., 2017}).


neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis 8 northern epilepsy variant

Progressive epilepsy-intellectual deficit, Finnish type (also known as Northern epilepsy) is a subtype of neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis (NCL) characterized by seizures, progressive decline of intellectual capacities and variable loss of vision.


epilepsy, X-linked 1, with variable learning disabilities and behavior disorders

An epilepsy, X-linked, with or without impaired intellectual development and dysmorphic features characterized by epilepsy, learning difficulties, macrocephaly, and aggressive behavior. It has been described in males from a four-generation kindred. It is transmitted as an X-linked recessive trait and is likely to be caused by mutations in the gene encoding synapsin I (Xp11.3-q12).


severe neonatal-onset encephalopathy with microcephaly

An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the MECP2 gene, encoding methyl-CpG-binding protein 2. It is characterized by severe neonatal encephalopathy.


X-linked intellectual disability-epilepsy syndrome


epilepsy, X-linked 2, with or without impaired intellectual development and dysmorphic features


epilepsy, X-linked, with or without impaired intellectual development and dysmorphic features


neonatal-onset encephalopathy with rigidity and seizures


autosomal recessive spinocerebellar ataxia 12

Autosomal recessive cerebellar ataxia-epilepsy-intellectual disability syndrome due to WWOX deficiency is a rare autosomal recessive cerebellar ataxia-epilepsy-intellectual disability syndrome characterized by early-childhood onset of cerebellar ataxia associated with generalized tonic-clonic epilepsy and psychomotor development delay, dysarthria, gaze-evoked nystagmus and learning disability. Other features in some patients include upper motor neuron signs with leg spasticity and extensor plantar responses, and mild cerebellar atrophy on brain MRI.


Mowat-Wilson syndrome

Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterized by a distinct facial phenotype, intellectual disability, epilepsy, Hirschsprung disease (HSCR) and variable congenital malformations.


global developmental delay-neuro-ophthalmological abnormalities-seizures-intellectual disability syndrome


FOXG1 syndrome due to intragenic alteration


spinocerebellar ataxia, autosomal recessive 23


developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 23


neurodevelopmental disorder with epilepsy, cataracts, feeding difficulties, and delayed brain myelination

Neurodevelopmental disorder with epilepsy, cataracts, feeding difficulties, and delayed brain myelination is a syndromic form of severe to profound intellectual disability with onset of delayed psychomotor development and seizures in infancy. Affected children have hypotonia, feeding difficulties resulting in failure to thrive, and inability to speak or walk, and they tend to show repetitive stereotypic behaviors. Brain imaging shows cerebral atrophy and delayed myelination (summary by {1:Schoch et al., 2017}).


polyhydramnios, megalencephaly, and symptomatic epilepsy


developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 73


Lung Large Cell Carcinoma by AJCC v7 Stage

A term that refers to the staging of large cell lung carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system.


Stage IIA Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Large cell lung cancer stage III

Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IIIA Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Large cell lung cancer stage II

Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associated atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumor nodule(s) in the same lobe. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IA Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IB Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Large cell lung cancer stage I

Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IIB Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associated atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumor nodule(s) in the same lobe. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage 0 Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7

Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)


Large cell lung cancer stage IV

Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IIIB Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


TOM complex

biolink:CellularComponent biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

A large mitochondrial outer membrane translocase complex that mediates transport of proteins into mitochondrial compartments. TOM transports beta-barrel precursors across the outer membrane and the sorting and assembly machinery (SAM complex) inserts them into the target membrane.


positive regulation of glycine import across plasma membrane

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of glycine import.


positive regulation of acetylcholine uptake

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the directed movement of acetylcholine into a cell.


positive regulation of proline import across plasma membrane

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of proline import into cell.


positive regulation of glutamate uptake involved in transmission of nerve impulse

Any process that activates, maintains or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the directed movement of L-glutamate into a neuron or glial cell.


positive regulation of L-glutamate import across plasma membrane

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of L-glutamate import into a cell.


positive regulation of acetylcholine secretion, neurotransmission

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the regulated release of acetylcholine.


positive regulation of amino acid uptake involved in synaptic transmission

Any process that activates, maintains or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the directed movement of amino acid neurotransmitters into a neuron or glial cell.


positive regulation of aspartate secretion

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of aspartate secretion.


positive regulation of glutamine transport

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of glutamine transport.


positive regulation of glycine secretion, neurotransmission

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of glycine secretion, neurotransmission.


positive regulation of glutamate secretion, neurotransmission

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of glutamate secretion, where glutamate acts as a neurotransmitter.


positive regulation of glutamate neurotransmitter secretion in response to membrane depolarization

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of glutamate secretion in response to membrane depolarization, where glutamate acts as a neurotransmitter.


Stage IV AIDS-Related Anal Canal Cancer AJCC v6 and v7

Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)


AIDS-Related Anal Canal Carcinoma

A carcinoma arising from the anal canal and occurring in HIV-positive patients.


Stage III AIDS-Related Anal Canal Cancer AJCC v6 and v7

Stage III includes: IIIA (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0); IIIB (T4, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T4: Tumor of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).  N1: Metastasis in perirectal lymph node(s).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N2: Metastasis in unilateral internal iliac and/or inguinal lymph node(s).  N3: Metastasis in perirectal and inguinal lymph nodes and/or bilateral internal iliac and/or inguinal lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)


AIDS-related anal cancer recurrent

The reemergence of anal canal carcinoma in HIV-positive patients after a period of remission.


Stage 0 AIDS-Related Anal Canal Cancer AJCC v6 and v7

Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)


Stage II AIDS-Related Anal Canal Cancer AJCC v6 and v7

Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3,N0, M0).  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)


Stage I AIDS-Related Anal Canal Cancer AJCC v6 and v7

Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)


glucomannan binding

Binding to glucomannan.


heteropolysaccharide binding

Binding to a heteropolysaccharide, a glycan composed of more than one type of monosaccharide residue.


galactomannan binding

Binding to galactomannan.


The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of ent-pimara-8(14),15-diene.


The chemical reactions and pathways involving ent-pimara-8(14),15-diene.


The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of ent-pimara-8(14),15-diene.


Refractory Small Intestinal Carcinoma

Small intestinal carcinoma that is resistant to treatment.


degenerative myopia

Excessive axial myopia associated with complications (especially posterior staphyloma and choroidal neovascularization) that can lead to blindness.


fibrochondrogenesis 2

Any fibrochondrogenesis in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the COL11A2 gene.


cellular response to silicon dioxide

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a silicon dioxide stimulus.


Advanced Kidney Carcinoma

Kidney carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Renal Pelvis Urothelial Carcinoma

Renal pelvis urothelial carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Kidney Medullary Carcinoma

Kidney medullary carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Renal Pelvis Carcinoma

Renal pelvis carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


dehydrated hereditary stomatocytosis 2

Any dehydrated hereditary stomatocytosis in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the KCNN4 gene.


regulation of establishment of bipolar cell polarity regulating cell shape

Any process that modulates the rate, frequency or extent of the establishment of bipolar cell polarity that contributes to the shape of a cell.


positive regulation of establishment of bipolar cell polarity regulating cell shape

Any process that increases the rate, frequency or extent of the establishment of bipolar cell polarity that regulates the shape of a cell.


olfactory placode maturation

A developmental process, independent of morphogenetic (shape) change, that is required for the olfactory placode to attain its fully functional state. The olfactory placode is a thickening of the neural ectoderm in the head region of the vertebrate embryo which develops into the olfactory region of the nasal cavity.


sesamoid bone of pes

A sesamoid bone that is part of a pes.


pisiform

A laterally positioned sesamoid bone found in close proximity with and occasionally fused to the ulnare.


patella

A large sesamoid bone found in the distal femur/proximal tibial region of the hindlimb of tetrapods. The patella is the attachment site for proximal hindlimb tendons.[PHENOSCAPE:ad].


equine distal sesamoid

Lies on the palmar aspect of the coffin joint between the second phalanx and third phalanx. articulates closely with the distal phalanx, to which it is connected by the impar ligament of the navicular bone. The impar ligament is very strong and permits relatively little motion between the navicular bone and the distal phalanx.


radial sesamoid

In the giant panda, a large digitlike preaxial element that articulates with the scapholunatum and the medial border of the first metacarpal.


sesamoid bone of the peroneus longus muscle


intertarsale sesamoid

Sesamoid bone in the tarsal region.


subarticular sesamoid

Is an endochondral structure located on the ventral to the junction between, in the hand, the metacarpal and most proximal phalanx of the digit and between phalanges, and in the foot between the metatarsal and most proximal phalanx of the digit and between phalanges. Typically subarticular sesamoids are found with the subarticular tubercles.


sesamoid bone of manus

A sesamoid bone that is part of a manus.


sesamoid bone of gastrocnemius

A small sesamoid bone situated behind a condyle of the femur.


Abdominal Migraine

Paroxysmal episodes of intense, acute periumbilical pain that lasts for one or more hours with intervening periods of usual health lasting weeks to months, with no evidence of an inflammatory, anatomic, metabolic, or neoplastic process that explains the symptoms. The pain interferes with normal activities and is associated with at least two of the following symptoms: anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, photophobia, and/or pallor.


leukoencephalopathy with mild cerebellar ataxia and white matter edema

An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CLCN2 gene, encoding chloride channel protein 2. It is characterized by variable clinical features including mild cerebellar ataxia, chorioretinopathy, visual field defects, and headaches. A characteristic pattern of white matter abnormalities is evident on MRI.


negative regulation of platelet formation

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of platelet formation.


carboxylesterase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: a carboxylic ester + H2O = a carboxylate + an alcohol + H(+).


Lewy neurite

Elongated neuronal process, often with side branches and more than one branching point, described in brains of patients with Parkinson's disease. Lewy neurites stain positively for ubiquitin in brainstem and forebrain regions affected in Parkinson's disease.


all-trans-retinal

A retinal in which all four exocyclic double bonds have E- (trans-) geometry.


positive regulation of exodeoxyribonuclease activity

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of exodeoxyribonuclease activity.


starch catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of starch, the most important reserve polysaccharide in plants.


cellular bud neck septin collar

A tubular structure with flared ends, shaped like an hourglass and composed of highly ordered arrays of septin filaments, that forms at the bud neck of a dividing cell. In S. cerevisiae, this structure is located at the bud neck throughout most of the cell cycle and the septins are fixed within the structure, not exchanging with soluble septins. This septin structure acts as a scaffold for other proteins that function at the bud neck.


tyrosinemia type II

Tyrosinemia type 2 is an inborn error of tyrosine metabolism characterized by hypertyrosinemia with oculocutaneous manifestations and, in some cases, intellectual deficit.


tyrosinemia

An autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the FAH, HPD, and TAT genes. It is characterized by deficiency of one of the enzymes that are involved in the metabolism of tyrosine. It results in elevated blood tyrosine levels and accumulation of tyrosine and its byproducts in the liver, kidney, nervous system and other organs.


tyrosinemia type I

Tyrosinemia type 1 (HTI) is an inborn error of tyrosine catabolism caused by defective activity of fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (FAH) and is characterized by progressive liver disease, renal tubular dysfunction, porphyria-like crises and a dramatic improvement in prognosis following treatment with nitisinone.


tyrosinemia type III

Tyrosinemia type 3 is an inborn error of tyrosine metabolism characterized by mild hypertyrosinemia and increased urinary excretion of 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate, 4-hydroxyphenyllactate and 4-hydroxyphenylacetate.


transient tyrosinemia of the newborn

A benign disorder of tyrosine metabolism detected upon newborn screening and often observed in premature infants. It shows no clinical symptoms. It is characterized by tyrosinemia, moderate hyperphenylalaninemia, and tyrosiluria that usually resolve after 2 months of age.


Stage IIA Adult Soft Tissue Sarcoma AJCC v7


Stage IIA Soft Tissue Sarcoma AJCC v7

Stage IIA includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G2, G3); (T1b, N0, M0, G2, G3).  T1a: Superficial tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1b: Deep tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G2: Grade 2.  G3: Grade 3. (AJCC 7th ed.)


amastigogenesis

The morphological, biochemical and genetic changes that induce the differentiation of metacyclic parasites into amastigotes in some of the Trypanosomatidae species such as Leishmania parasites and Trypanosoma cruzi. This process occurs inside the cells of the mammalian hosts, particularly in macrophages and other phagocytic cells for Leishmania parasites.


respiratory tract epithelium

The pseudostratified ciliated epithelium that lines much of the conducting portion of the airway, including part of the nasal cavity and larynx, the trachea, and bronchi.


epithelium of right lung

An epithelium that is part of a right lung [Automatically generated definition].


terminal bronchus epithelium

An epithelium that is part of a terminal bronchus [Automatically generated definition].


nasal fin

The nasal fin is an epithelial seam that develops by fusion between the epithelial linings of the medial and lateral nasal swellings. Shortly after its formation the nasal fin regresses and is replaced by mesenchyme, with exception of its most posterior portion which remains as the bucconasal membrane.


pseudostratified smooth columnar epithelium


epithelium of main bronchus

An epithelium that is part of a main bronchus [Automatically generated definition].


lung endothelium

A blood vessel endothelium that is part of a lung [Automatically generated definition].


endothelium of trachea

An endothelium that is part of a trachea.


larynx epithelium

An epithelium that is part of a larynx [Automatically generated definition].


right lung accessory lobe epithelium

An epithelium that is part of a right lung accessory lobe.


alveolar secondary septum

A secondary alveolar septum is a specialized epithelium that subdivides the initial saccule[GO].


right lung endothelium

An endothelium that is part of a right lung.


left lung endothelium

An endothelium that is part of a left lung.


terminal bronchiole epithelium

An epithelium that lines a terminal bronchiole.


epithelium of lobar bronchus

The tissue made up of epithelial cells that lines the inside of the lobar bronchus.


pulmonary alveolus epithelium

The epithelial layer of the alveoli[MP]. The layer of cells covering the lining of the tiny air sacs at the end of the bronchioles[BTO].


left lung lobar bronchus epithelium

An epithelium that is part of a lobar bronchus of left lung.


right lung accessory lobe endothelium

An endothelium that is part of a right lung accessory lobe.


right lung lobar bronchus epitheium

An epithelium that is part of a lobar bronchus of right lung.


epithelium of left lung

An epithelium that is part of a left lung [Automatically generated definition].


lung epithelium

The epithelial layer of the lung.


upper respiratory tract epithelium

An epithelium that is part of a upper respiratory tract [Automatically generated definition].


right lung caudal lobe epithelium

An epithelium that is part of a lower lobe of right lung.


lower respiratory tract epithelium

An epithelium that is part of a lower respiratory tract [Automatically generated definition].


epithelium of segmental bronchus

An epithelium that is part of a segmental bronchus [Automatically generated definition].


right lung cranial lobe endothelium

An endothelium that is part of a upper lobe of right lung.


right lung caudal lobe endothelium

An endothelium that is part of a lower lobe of right lung.


olfactory epithelium

A sensory epithelium inside the nasal cavity that is responsible for detecting odors[WP].


endothelium of main bronchus

An endothelium that is part of a main bronchus [Automatically generated definition].


epithelium of lobular bronchiole

An epithelium of the lobular bronchiole.


epithelium of bronchiole

An epithelium that is part of a bronchiole [Automatically generated definition].


epithelium of nasopharynx

An epithelium that is part of a nasopharynx [Automatically generated definition].


right lung cranial lobe epithelium

An epithelium that is part of a upper lobe of right lung.


alveolar primary septum

A primary alveolar septum is a specialized epithelium that surrounds the saccule as it forms[GO].


alveolar sac

The small terminal dilation of the alveolar ducts around which the alveoli form pocket-like clusters.


nasal cavity epithelium

An epithelium that lines the nasal cavity.


epithelium of respiratory bronchiole

An epithelium that is part of a respiratory bronchiole [Automatically generated definition].


tracheobronchial epithelium

Epithelium pertaining to the trachea and bronchi.


Medulloblastoma, SHH-2

Medulloblastoma, SHH-activated, characterized by chromosome 9q loss and nodular morphology. It affects mostly infants.


Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2A1

Autosomal dominant Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2A1 (CMT2A1) is a form of axonal Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, a peripheral sensorimotor neuropathy. CMT2A presents with a more prominent muscle weakness in lower than upper limbs and frequent postural tremor.


Lung Synovial Sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma arising from the lungs.


Sarcoma NCI Grade 3

A sarcoma with more than 15% necrosis.


monophasic synovial sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of an epithelial or a spindle cell component only.


Stage II Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma by Toronto Guidelines v2

Unfavorable site and T1a, T2a, N0, M0. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


biphasic synovial sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of both an epithelial and a spindle cell component.


Anaplastic Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma

A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.  It is characterized by the presence of large hyperchromatic and anaplastic cells.


vulvar alveolar soft part sarcoma

An alveolar soft part sarcoma arising from the vulva.


botryoid-type embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma of the vagina

A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the vagina. It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules within an abundant myxoid stroma.


rhabdomyosarcoma of lung

A rare rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the lung.


childhood botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma

A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in children. The tumor arises from organs with a mucosal epithelial surface. It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules within an abundant myxoid stroma.


Paratesticular Rhabdomyosarcoma

A rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the paratesticular region.


alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma of prostate

A rare alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the prostate gland.


Metastatic embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.


orbit embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the orbit. It is characterized by the presence of skeletal muscle tissue exhibiting embryonic features.


Orbital Alveolar Soft Part Sarcoma

An alveolar soft part sarcoma involving the orbit. It usually occurs in children.


Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma by Toronto Guidelines v2 Stage, Tier 2

A term that refers to the staging of childhood rhabdomyosarcoma according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2.


central nervous system rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the central nervous system.


Tongue Alveolar Soft Part Sarcoma'

An alveolar soft part sarcoma involving the tongue. It usually occurs in children.


Middle Ear Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma

A rare embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma that arises in the middle ear.


Gastric Synovial Sarcoma

A rare synovial sarcoma that arises from the stomach.


adult botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma

A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in adults. The neoplasm arises from organs containing a mucosal epithelial surface. It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules with an abundant myxoid stroma.


adult vagina botryoid embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the vagina. It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules with an abundant myxoid stroma. It occurs in female adults.


orbit rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation that arises from the orbit.


Poorly Differentiated Fibrosarcoma

A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissue.  It is characterized by the presence of poorly-differentiated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation and increased mitotic activity.


Refractory Pleomorphic Liposarcoma

Pleomorphic liposarcoma that is resistant to treatment.


Kidney Synovial Sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma arising from the kidney.


Locally Advanced Alveolar Soft Part Sarcoma

Alveolar soft part sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes.


Refractory Alveolar Soft Part Sarcoma

Alveolar soft part sarcoma that is resistant to treatment.


Localized Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma by Toronto Guidelines v2

Tumor confined to the area of origin including the regional lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma

An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle in children.  Only a small percentage of tumors arise in the skeletal muscle of the extremities. The majority arise in other anatomic sites.


Pleural Monophasic Synovial Sarcoma

A monophasic synovial sarcoma arising in the pleural cavity.


Lung Biphasic Synovial Sarcoma

A biphasic synovial sarcoma arising from the lungs.


Esophageal Rhabdomyosarcoma

A rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the esophageal wall.


Unresectable Alveolar Soft Part Sarcoma

Alveolar soft part sarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection.


mediastinum synovial sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma arising from the mediastinum.


Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma with Mixed Embryonal and Alveolar Features

A mixed rhabdomyosarcoma that occurs in children. The neoplasm is composed of embryonic and alveolar components.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with myoblastic differentiation and a myxoid and a fibrous stroma.


testis rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the testis.


childhood vagina botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma

A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in female children. The neoplasm arises from the vagina. It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules with an abundant myxoid stroma.


breast rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the breast.


Unresectable Pleomorphic Liposarcoma

Pleomorphic liposarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection.


Rhabdomyosarcoma of bladder

A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation arising from the bladder.


Fusion-Negative Rhabdomyosarcoma

A rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the absence of chromosomal translocation t(1;13)(p36;q14) or t(2;13)(q35;q14) and therefore the absence of PAX7-FOXO1 or PAX3-FOXO1 gene fusion.


Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma by Toronto Guidelines v2 Stage, Tier 1

A term that refers to the staging of childhood rhabdomyosarcoma according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2.


An alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of chromosomal translocation t(1;13)(p36;q14) that results in PAX7-FOXO1 gene fusion; or translocation t(2;13)(q35;q14) that results in PAX3-FOXO1 gene fusion.  Approximately 80% of alveolar rhabdomyosarcomas are fusion-positive.


Stage I Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma by Toronto Guidelines v2

Favorable site and any T, any N, M0. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


childhood pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

A rare aggressive rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in children. The neoplasm is characterized by the presence of bizarre round, spindle, and polygonal cells.


adult pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

An aggressive rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in adults. The neoplasm is characterized by the presence of bizarre round, spindle, and polygonal cells. Clinical presentation includes a rapidly enlarging painful mass usually in the lower extremities.


Alveolar soft part sarcoma metastatic

An alveolar soft part sarcoma which has spread to another anatomic site.


Childhood Ectomesenchymoma

An ectomesenchymoma that occurs during childhood.


Synovial sarcoma recurrent

The reemergence of synovial sarcoma after a period of remission


Recurrent Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma

The reemergence of alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma after a period of remission.


Pelvic Rhabdomyosarcoma

Rhabdomyosarcoma involving the organs and structures in the pelvis.


An uncommon variant of rhabdomyosarcoma with spindle cell or sclerosing morphology.  It affects both children and adults and it is more common in males.


Lung Alveolar Soft Part Sarcoma

An exceptionally rare alveolar soft part sarcoma that arises from the lung.


ectomesenchymoma

An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the nervous system or soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a sarcomatous component (most often rhabdomyosarcoma) and a ganglionic or a neuroectodermal component.


Refractory Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma

Childhood rhabdomyosarcoma that is resistant to treatment.


vaginal rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation arising from the vagina.


Synovial sarcoma metastatic

A synovial sarcoma that has metastasized to other anatomic sites.


Liver Synovial Sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma that affects the liver.


alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma of bladder

An alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the bladder. It is the most common type of rhabdomyosarcoma of the bladder affecting older children and adolescents.


Sinonasal Rhabdomyosarcoma

A rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses.


Advanced Pleomorphic Liposarcoma

Pleomorphic liposarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


pleomorphic liposarcoma

Pleomorphic liposarcoma (PLS), the rarest subtype of liposarcoma (LS), is an aggressive, fast growing tumor located usually in the deep soft tissues of the lower and upper extremities. It is characterized by a variable number of pleomorphic lipoblasts and, in contrast to dedifferentiated liposarcoma, it lacks any association with well-differentiated liposarcoma.


Stage IV Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma by Toronto Guidelines v2

Any site and any T, any N, M1. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Esophageal Synovial Sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma that affects the esophageal wall.


Childhood Synovial Sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma occurring in childhood.


mediastinum rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the mediastinum.


Adult Synovial Sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma occurring in adults.


Cardiac Synovial Sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma arising from the heart.


Sinonasal Synovial Sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses.


Fusion-Positive Rhabdomyosarcoma

A rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of chromosomal translocation t(1;13)(p36;q14) that results in PAX7-FOXO1 gene fusion; or translocation t(2;13)(q35;q14) that results in PAX3-FOXO1 gene fusion.


Advanced Alveolar Soft Part Sarcoma

Alveolar soft part sarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Metastatic Pleomorphic Liposarcoma

Pleomorphic liposarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.


Recurrent Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma

The reemergence of childhood rhabdomyosarcoma after a period of remission.


Pleural Biphasic Synovial Sarcoma

A biphasic synovial sarcoma arising in the pleural cavity.


ovary rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the ovaries.


pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation, occurring in adults and rarely in children. The tumor is characterized by the presence of bizarre round, spindle, and polygonal cells. Clinical presentation includes a rapidly enlarging painful mass usually of the lower extremities.


vulvar childhood botryoid-type embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in female children. The neoplasm arises from the vulva. It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules with an abundant myxoid stroma.


Alveolar soft part sarcoma non-metastatic

Alveolar soft part sarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites.


Adult Rhabdomyosarcoma

An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle in adults.


pleomorphic liposarcoma of skin

A rare pleomorphic liposarcoma arising from the skin.


An alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the absence of chromosomal translocation t(1;13)(p36;q14) or t(2;13)(q35;q14) and therefore the absence of PAX7-FOXO1 or PAX3-FOXO1 gene fusion.


botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma

A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from organs with a mucosal epithelial surface. It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules within an abundant myxoid stroma.


Kaposi Sarcoma NCI Grade 3

A Kaposi sarcoma with more than 15% necrosis.


Metastatic Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma by Toronto Guidelines v2

Distant metastases present. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


Conjunctival Rhabdomyosarcoma

A rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the conjunctiva.


Advanced Synovial Sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Synovial sarcoma non-metastatic

Synovial sarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites.


Metastatic rhabdomyosarcoma

Rhabdomyosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.


MYOD1-Mutant Spindle Cell/Sclerosing Rhabdomyosarcoma

Spindle cell/sclerosing rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of MYOD1 p.Leu122Arg substitution mutation. This subtype includes most spindle cell/sclerosing rhabdomyosarcomas in adolescents and young adults, as well as some cases in older adults. It follows an aggressive clinical course.


Unresectable Rhabdomyosarcoma

Rhabdomyosarcoma which is not amenable to surgical resection.


rhabdomyosarcoma of kidney

An extremely rare rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the kidney. Most cases are of embryonal type.


rhabdomyosarcoma of the cervix uteri

A rare malignant neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation arising from the cervix.


prostate embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the prostate. It is characterized by the presence of skeletal muscle exhibiting embryonic features.


Alveolar soft part sarcoma recurrent

The reemergence of alveolar soft part sarcoma after a period of remission.


Refractory Synovial Sarcoma

Synovial sarcoma that does not respond to treatment.


Pleural Synovial Sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma arising in the pleural cavity.


Epithelioid Sarcoma NCI Grade 3

An epithelioid sarcoma with more than 15% necrosis.


Prostate Synovial Sarcoma

A rare synovial sarcoma that arises from the prostate gland.


embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma of bladder

An embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the bladder. It is the most common type of rhabdomyosarcoma of the bladder affecting young children.


Locally Advanced Synovial Sarcoma

Synovial sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes.


Angiosarcoma NCI Grade 3

An angiosarcoma with more than 15% necrosis.


Cardiac Biphasic Synovial Sarcoma

A biphasic synovial sarcoma arising from the heart.


epithelioid cell synovial sarcoma

A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of an epithelial cell component only. The epithelial cells are arranged in glandular or papillary structures.


Abdominal Rhabdomyosarcoma

Rhabdomyosarcoma involving the organs and structures in the abdomen.


Penile Rhabdomyosarcoma

A rhabdomyosarcoma that occurs in the penis. It usually affects young children. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common type.


Locally Advanced Rhabdomyosarcoma

Rhabdomyosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes.


Stage III Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma by Toronto Guidelines v2

Unfavorable site and (T1a, T2a, N1, M0); (T1b, T2b, Any N, M0). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)


uterine corpus rhabdomyosarcoma

A rare malignant heterologous neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation arising from the uterine corpus. It usually manifests with vaginal bleeding. The prognosis is poor.


Vulvar Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma

An extremely rare malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the vulva exhibiting skeletal muscle differentiation with an alveolar pattern.


Bladder Alveolar Soft Part Sarcoma

An alveolar soft part sarcoma involving the bladder.


Refractory Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma that does not respond to treatment.


Childhood Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma

A poorly circumscribed morphologic variant of rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in children.  The neoplasm is characterized by the presence of primitive skeletal muscle in any stage of myogenesis.


Conventional Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma

An alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of large striated muscle cells with clear cytoplasm, giant cells with myoblastic differentiation, and fibrovascular septa.


Cardiac Monophasic Synovial Sarcoma

A monophasic synovial sarcoma arising from the heart.


rhabdomyosarcoma with mixed embryonal and alveolar features

A rhabdomyosarcoma composed of embryonic and alveolar components. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with myoblastic differentiation, a myxoid stroma, and fibrous septa. These tumors were previously considered variants of alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. The lack of PAX3-FOXO1 fusions in most of these tumors suggests that are biologically and clinically related to embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.


Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma by Toronto Guidelines v2 Stage

A term that refers to the staging of childhood rhabdomyosarcoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2.


Localized Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma

Rhabdomyosarcoma that occurs during childhood and is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites.


Lung Monophasic Synovial Sarcoma

A monophasic synovial sarcoma arising from the lungs.


Refractory Rhabdomyosarcoma

Rhabdomyosarcoma that does not respond to treatment.


Digestive System Rhabdomyosarcoma

A rhabdomyosarcoma arising from an anatomic site in the digestive system.


orbit alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises in the orbit. It is characterized by the presence of round cells with myoblastic differentiation and a fibrovascular stroma.


cervical alveolar soft part sarcoma

An alveolar soft part sarcoma arising from the cervix.


Recurrent Ectomesenchymoma

The reemergence of ectomesenchymoma after a period of remission.


Solid Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma

A morphologic variant of alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.  It is characterized by the presence of a solid growth pattern and the absence of fibrovascular stroma.


prostate rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the prostate.


Leiomyosarcoma NCI Grade 3

A leiomyosarcoma with more than 15% necrosis.


Cardiac Rhabdomyosarcoma

A rare malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation arising within the myocardium.  It is characterized by the presence of small round spindle cells.  Most cardiac rhabodomyosarcomas are of embryonal type and usually present in children and young adults.


Recurrent Rhabdomyosarcoma

The reemergence of rhabdomyosarcoma after a period of remission.


Unresectable Synovial Sarcoma

Synovial sarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection.


Vulvar Rhabdomyosarcoma

A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation arising from the vulva.


uncoating of virus

The process by which an incoming virus is disassembled in the host cell to release a replication-competent viral genome.


Catalysis of the hydrolysis of the alpha-(1->3) bonds of alpha-D-mannose residues in mannosyl-oligosaccharide.


digestive duplication cyst of the tongue

Digestive duplication cyst of the tongue is an extremely rare otorhinolaryngological malformation which occurs during early embryogenesis and is characterized by a single, and on occasion multiple, cystic lesion that is most frequently located in the anterior portion of the tongue, either deeply embedded within it or superficially on it. Depending mostly on size and location of the cyst, patients could be asymptomatic or could present a wide array of symptoms, such as varying degrees of respiratory and feeding difficulties, lingual swelling and protrusion, dysphagia, and more rarely, recurrent bleeding or brownish discharge from a lingual sinus.


Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage II

Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associated atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumor nodule(s) in the same lobe. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma by AJCC v7 Stage

A term that refers to the staging of adenosquamous lung carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system.


Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage III

Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage I

Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage IV

Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IA Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma AJCC v7

Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage 0 Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7

Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)


Stage IIB Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma AJCC v7

Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associated atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumor nodule(s) in the same lobe. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IIA Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma AJCC v7

Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage IIIB

Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IB Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma AJCC v7

Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage IIIA

Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


lethal osteosclerotic bone dysplasia

Generalized osteosclerosis with periosteal bone formation, characteristic facial dysmorphism, brain abnormalities including intracerebral calcifications, and neonatal lethal course.


Conjunctival Subepithelial Nevus

A conjunctival nevus characterized by an intrastromal proliferation of predominantly type B nevus cells.


glial cell-derived neurotrophic factor receptor signaling pathway involved in ureteric bud formation

biolink:Pathway biolink:BiologicalProcess biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:OntologyClass biolink:Occurrent biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

The series of molecular signals generated as a consequence of a glial cell-derived neurotrophic factor receptor binding to one of its physiological ligands that contributes to the formation of the ureteric bud from the Wolffian duct.


GDF15-GFRAL signaling pathway

The series of molecular signals initiated by GDF15 binding to GFRAL coreceptor, triggering RET autophosphorylation and activation, in response to stress.


reticular layer of dermis

The thicker, deeper layer of the dermis, comprised of criss-crossing collagen fibers that form a strong elastic network and also containing blood and lymph vessels, nerves and nerve endings, and hair follicles.


Bethlem myopathy

A usually autosomal dominant inherited movement disorder caused by mutations in the COL6A1, COL6A2, and COL6A3 genes. It is characterized by progressive muscle weakness and joint stiffness in the fingers, wrists, elbows, and ankles.


RHYNS syndrome

RHYNS syndrome is characterized by the association of retinitis pigmentosa, hypopituitarism, nephronophthisis, and skeletal dysplasia.


isolated focal cortical dysplasia type Ib


isolated focal cortical dysplasia type I


isolated focal cortical dysplasia type Ia


isolated focal cortical dysplasia type Ic


polyenoic fatty acid isomerase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: all-cis-icosa-5,8,11,14,17-pentaenoate = (5Z,7E,9E,14Z,17Z)-icosapentaenoate.


episodic kinesigenic dyskinesia

Paroxysmal kinesigenic dyskinesia (PKD) is a form of paroxysmal dyskinesia, characterized by recurrent brief involuntary hyperkinesias, such as choreoathetosis, ballism, athetosis or dystonia, triggered by sudden movements.


childhood onset GLUT1 deficiency syndrome 2

A form of paroxysmal dyskinesia, characterized by painless attacks of dystonia of the extremities triggered by prolonged physical activities.


episodic kinesigenic dyskinesia 1

An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the PRRT2 gene, encoding proline-rich transmembrane protein 2. It is characterized by dyskinesia triggered by sudden movement. It shares features with infantile convulsions and paroxysmal choreoathetosis, familial. It is an allelic disorder.


infantile convulsions and choreoathetosis

Infantile Convulsions and paroxysmal ChoreoAthetosis (ICCA) syndrome is a neurological condition characterized by the occurrence of seizures during the first year of life (Benign familial infantile epilepsy) and choreoathetotic dyskinetic attacks during childhood or adolescence.


paroxysmal nonkinesigenic dyskinesia 1

Paroxysmal nonkinesigenic dyskinesia in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the PNKD gene.


episodic kinesigenic dyskinesia 2

A dystonia characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance of recurrent brief involuntary hyperkinesias triggered by sudden movements that has material basis in variation in the chromosome region 16q13-q22.1.


paroxysmal nonkinesigenic dyskinesia 2

A dystonia characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance of attacks of dystonic or choreathetotic movements precipitated by stress, fatigue, coffee or alcohol intake or menstruation that has material basis in variation in the chromosome region 2q31.


paroxysmal nonkinesigenic dyskinesia

Paroxysmal non-kinesigenic dyskinesia (PNKD) is a form of paroxysmal dyskinesia, characterized by attacks of dystonic or choreathetotic movements precipitated by stress, fatigue, coffee or alcohol intake or menstruation.


benign paroxysmal torticollis of infancy

Benign paroxysmal torticollis of infancy (BPTI) is a rare functional disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of torticollic posturing of the head (inclination or tilting of the head to one side) in healthy children.


dystonia 9

A dystonia characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance of paroxysmal choreoathetosis and progressive spastic paraplegia, episodes are often precipitated by alcohol, fatigue, or emotional stress that has material basis in heterozygous mutation in the SLC2A1 gene on chromosome 1p34.


ECHS1-related paroxysmal dyskinesia

A paroxysmal dyskinesia which manifest as dystonic movements brought on by sustained exercise, that is correlated with a deficiency in the gene ECHS1 (caused by a missence mutation). Onset is typically between age two and four years.


8-methylthiopropyl glucosinolate S-oxygenase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 8-methylthiopropyl-glucosinolate = 8-methylsulfinylpropyl-glucosinolate.


anterior lateral line neuromast development

The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the anterior lateral line neuromast over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The neuromast is the sensory receptor of the anterior lateral line system and is composed of a population of sensory hair cells, and nonsensory supporting cells and mantle cells. Neuromast are located superficially on the epithelium or in lateral line canals.


Cervical Rhabdomyoma

A rare benign skeletal muscle neoplasm arising from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of small nucleated rhabdomyoblasts within a fibrous and myxoid stroma.


Benign Cervical Soft Tissue Neoplasm

A rare benign mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the cervix.


Cervical Leiomyoma

An uncommon benign smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the cervix.


Metastatic Prostate Neuroendocrine Carcinoma

A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland and has spread to other anatomic sites.


Locally Advanced Prostate Neuroendocrine Carcinoma

A prostate neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes.


Metastatic Prostate Small Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma

Prostate small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site.


vitamin D3 catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of vitamin D3.


sporangium germination

The physiological, developmental and morphological changes that occur in a symbiont sporangium following release from dormancy up to the earliest signs of growth. A sporangium is a structure producing and containing spores.


vitamin D5 metabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways involving vitamin D5, (1S,3Z)-3-[(2E)-2-[(1R,3aS,7aR)-1-[(1R,4S)-4-ethyl-1,5-dimethylhexyl]-7a-methyl-2,3,3a,5,6,7-hexahydro-1H-inden-4-ylidene]ethylidene]-4-methylene-1-cyclohexanol.


central nervous system mature teratoma

A teratoma composed exclusively of fully differentiated, 'adult-type' tissue elements that are sometimes arranged in a pattern resembling normal tissue relationships. Mitotic activity is low or absent. The more common ectodermal components present in a mature teratoma include skin, brain and choroid plexus. The more common mesodermal components include cartilage, bone, fat and muscle (both smooth and striated). And the most common endodermal components are cysts lined by epithelia of respiratory or enteric type and in some cases pancreatic or hepatic tissue. (Adapted from WHO)


extragonadal germ cell tumor

A germ cell tumor arising in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary (e.g., central nervous system, lung, mediastinum, and retroperitoneum).


adult central nervous system germ cell tumor

A germ cell tumor of the central nervous system occurring in adults.


adult central nervous system immature teratoma


gestational uterine corpus choriocarcinoma

A gestational choriocarcinoma that involves the body of uterus.


brain germinoma

A germinoma (disease) that involves the brain.


central nervous system germ cell tumor

A unique group of rare tumors of the central nervous system that affect mainly children and adolescents. Their morphologic and biologic profile corresponds to that of homologous germ cell tumors that arise in the gonads and in other extragonadal sites. Representative examples include: germinoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, and teratoma.


adult central nervous system germinoma

A central nervous system germinoma that occurs in an adult.


gestational choriocarcinoma

Gestational choriocarcinoma is a gestational trophoblastic tumor (GTT) occurring secondary to pregnancy (ectopic or normal), miscarriage, voluntary termination of pregnancy (VTP) or a hydatidiform mole.


adult central nervous system embryonal carcinoma

A embryonal carcinoma of the central nervous system that occurs in an adult.


polyembryoma of the ovary

A rare, malignant germ cell tumor arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of embryoid bodies which resemble early embryos.


testicular embryonal carcinoma

A malignant germ cell neoplasm arising from the testis. It is composed of primitive epithelial cells arranged in solid, papillary, and glandular configurations. Most patients present with a testicular mass, which may be associated with pain. More than half of the patients have metastatic disease at diagnosis. The form of treatment following radical orchiectomy is stage dependent.


testicular yolk sac tumor, solid pattern

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of aggregates of polygonal malignant cells with clear cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli.


childhood ovarian yolk sac tumor

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the ovary and occurs in children.


pineal region choriocarcinoma

A choriocarcinoma (disease) that involves the pineal body.


central nervous system immature teratoma

A variant of teratoma composed of incompletely differentiated components resembling fetal tissues. Even if the immature component is only a minor element of an otherwise differentiated teratoma, the tumor is still classified as immature. (Adapted from WHO)


ovarian yolk sac tumor

A usually rapidly growing malignant germ cell tumor arising from the ovary. It usually occurs in children and adolescents. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain and a large abdominal or pelvic mass. The serum alpha-fetoprotein is almost always elevated preoperatively. Morphologically, there is marked heterogeneity due to numerous patterns of differentiation coexisting in the same tumor. The most common pattern is reticular.


mediastinal malignant germ cell tumor

An extragonadal malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. This category includes seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, mixed germ cell tumors, and immature malignant teratoma.


adult central nervous system teratoma

A mature or immature teratoma affecting the central nervous system and occurring in adults.


gestational ovarian choriocarcinoma

A rare malignant trophoblastic tumor that arises from the ovary as a result of ectopic ovarian pregnancy. There is no germ cell component present.


choriocarcinoma of the central nervous system

A malignant germ cell tumor of the central nervous system characterized by extra-embryonic differentiation along trophoblastic lines. The diagnosis requires the identification of cytotrophoblastic elements, as well as syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells. (WHO)


mediastinal yolk sac tumor

An extragonadal non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. It is characterized by the presence of small pale cells with small amount of cytoplasm and round to oval nuclei with small nucleoli forming a variety of patterns, including microcystic, macrocystic, pseudopapillary, myxomatous, hepatoid, polyvesicular vitelline, and solid. It manifests with respiratory distress, thoracic pain, fever, and superior vena cava syndrome.


yolk sac tumor

A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor composed of primitive germ cells. It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in the pediatric population. It occurs in the infant testis, ovary, sacrococcygeal region, vagina, uterus, prostate, abdomen, liver, retroperitoneum, thorax, and pineal/third ventricle. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Treatment includes: surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. This tumor is very responsive to chemotherapy regimens that include cisplatinum.


pineal region dysgerminoma

A dysgerminoma (disease) that involves the pineal body.


malignant cardiac germ cell tumor

A rare malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the pericardium.


malignant teratoma of mediastinum

A malignant teratoma that involves the mediastinum.


mediastinal germ cell tumor

A germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. Representative examples include seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, and mixed germ cell tumor.


polyvesicular vitelline pattern testicular yolk sac tumor

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of collections of vesicles that are surrounded by connective tissue.


yolk sac tumor of central nervous system

A malignant germ cell tumor of the central nervous system composed of primitive-appearing epithelial cells - putatively representing yolk sac endoderm - set in a loose, variably cellular, and often conspicuously myxoid matrix, resembling extra-embryonic mesoblast. Eosinophilic hyaline globules immunoreactive for AFP are a diagnostic feature. (WHO)


childhood central nervous system embryonal carcinoma

An embryonal carcinoma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood.


immature extragonadal teratoma

An immature teratoma that develops as a primary tumor in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary.


pineal region germinoma

A germinoma that arises from the pineal gland.


extragonadal non-dysgerminomatous germ cell tumor


embryonal carcinoma

A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of large germ cells with abundant cytoplasm resembling epithelial cells, geographic necrosis, high mitotic activity, and pseudoglandular and pseudopapillary structures formation. It can arise from the testis, ovary, and extragonadal sites (central nervous system and mediastinum).


adult yolk sac tumor

A yolk sac tumor that occurs in an adult.


reticular pattern testicular yolk sac tumor

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of a meshwork of small vacuolated cells resulting in a honeycomb appearance.


childhood embryonal testis carcinoma

An embryonal carcinoma that arises from the testis during childhood.


testicular yolk sac tumor, myxomatous pattern

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of myxomatous tissue that contains collections of malignant cells with prominent nucleoli.


ovarian yolk sac tumor, glandular pattern

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of extensive differentiation into endodermal type glandular structures.


spinal cord dermoid cyst

A dermoid cyst that involves the spinal cord.


malignant peritoneal germ cell tumor

A malignant germ cell tumor that affects the peritoneum.


testicular yolk sac tumor, macrocystic pattern

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of collections of thin-walled spaces.


testicular yolk sac tumor, endodermal sinus pattern

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of connective tissue stalks that contain a blood vessel and are lined by cells with clear cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli.


central nervous system germinoma

A malignant germ cell tumor arising from the central nervous system. It is composed of uniform cells resembling primitive germ cells. These cells have large, vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli and a clear, glycogen-rich cytoplasm. Additional features are lymphoid or lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates and, less frequently, scattered syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells. (Adapted from WHO)


malignant pineal area germ cell neoplasm

A malignant germ cell tumor that arises in the pineal region. Representative examples include germinoma, immature teratoma, choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma and yolk sac tumor.


testicular yolk sac tumor

A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor arising from the testis. It affects infants, young children, and postpubertal males. It is the most frequently seen testicular neoplasm during childhood. The vast majority of patients present with an asymptomatic scrotal mass. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). It metastasizes to distant anatomic sites. Prognostic factors relate to the clinical stage and the degree of AFP elevation.


mediastinum seminoma

An extragonadal malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells with clear or eosinophilic cytoplasm, round nucleus with one or more nucleoli, and distinct cellular borders. It usually arises from the anterior mediastinum. It may present with respiratory distress, chest pain, or superior vena cava syndrome or it may be asymptomatic, with the tumor detected on routine chest x-ray. The prognosis of mediastinal pure seminomas is favorable compared to the mediastinal non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumors.


polyembryoma

Polyembryoma is a type oftumor that develops from the cells of the gonads (testes in men or ovaries in women). Such tumors are called germ cell tumors. Polyembryomas have a distinctivelook because they are composed of many parts that are shaped like embryos, one of the earliest stages of a developing human during pregnancy. Symptoms of a polyembryoma may include an unusual bump or mass in the abdomen which can cause pain in some individuals; puberty at an unusually young age (known as precocious puberty); or irregularities in a female's menstruation. Treatment begins with surgery and may be followed by chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy. The cause of polyembryoma is not yet known.


ovarian yolk sac tumor, hepatoid pattern

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of extensive differentiation into hepatic tissue.


extragonadal teratoma

Extragonadal teratoma is an extremely rare, benign or malignant germ cell tumor characterized, clinically, by a teratoma presenting in an extragonadal location (e.g. retroperitoneum, mediastinum, craniofacial or sacrococcygeal region, intraosseous, solid organs) and, histologically, by displaying well-differentiated structures, as well as immature elements. Presenting symptoms are variable depending on size and location of tumor.


childhood central nervous system immature teratoma

An immature teratoma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood.


central nervous system nongerminomatous germ cell tumor

Germ cell tumors of the central nervous system other than germinoma. This category includes teratoma, choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, and yolk sac tumor.


enteric pattern testicular yolk sac tumor

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of immature glands.


childhood central nervous system mature teratoma

A mature teratoma that arises from the central nervous system during childhood.


ovarian yolk sac tumor, polyvesicular vitelline pattern

A yolk sac tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of multiple dilated spaces lined by cells that resemble mesothelial cells. The dilated spaces coexist with columnar epithelial tissues.


childhood central nervous system germ cell tumor

A germ cell tumor of the central nervous system occurring in children.


childhood ovarian embryonal carcinoma

An embryonal carcinoma that arises from the ovary and occurs in children.


intratubular embryonal carcinoma

Stage 0 includes: pTis, N0, M0, S0. pTis: Intratubular germ cell neoplasia (carcinoma in situ). N0: regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)


pineal region mature teratoma

A mature teratoma that arises from the pineal region.


cardiac germ cell tumor

A germ cell tumor that arises within the myocardium or cardiac chambers. The reported cases have been teratomas and yolk sac tumors.


childhood central nervous system germinoma

A germinoma arising from the central nervous system during childhood.


adult central nervous system mixed germ cell tumor

A mixed germ cell tumor of central nervous system that occurs in an adult.


childhood endodermal sinus tumor

A yolk sac tumor that occurs during childhood.


extragonadal germ cell cancer

A malignant germ cell tumor that develops as a primary tumor in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary.