filamentous growth of a population of unicellular organisms

The process in which a group of unicellular organisms grow in a threadlike, filamentous shape.


lateral growth

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Growth of a plant axis (shoot axis or root) that originates from a lateral meristem.


root meristem growth

The increase in size or mass of a root meristem, a population of undifferentiated cells in a plant root which maintains a continuous balance between the production of stem cells and the incorporation of their derivatives into the growth of the root.


filamentous growth of a population of unicellular organisms in response to chemical stimulus

The process in which a group of unicellular organisms grow in a threadlike, filamentous shape in response to a chemical stimulus.


budding cell bud growth

The process in which the bud portion of a cell that reproduces by budding irreversibly increases in size over time by accretion and biosynthetic production of matter similar to that already present.


cell tip growth

Growth that occurs specifically at the tip of a cell.


nephric duct elongation

The process in which the nephric duct grows along its axis. A nephric duct is a tube that drains a primitive kidney.


intramembranous bone growth

The increase in size or mass of an intramembranous bone that contributes to the shaping of the bone.


dorsal closure, elongation of leading edge cells

The change in shape of cells at the dorsal-most (leading) edge of the epidermis from being polygonal to being elongated in the dorsal/ventral axis.


imaginal disc-derived wing expansion

The process of expanding or inflating the folded imaginal disc-derived pupal wing, and the adhering of the dorsal and ventral surfaces, to form the mature adult wing.


branch elongation involved in ureteric bud branching

The growth of a branch of the ureteric bud along its axis.


primary spermatocyte growth

The phase of growth and gene expression that male germ cells undergo as they enter the spermatocyte stage. The cells grow in volume and transcribe most of the gene products needed for the morphological events that follow meiosis.


formation of growth cone in injured axon

The formation of a growth cone in an injured axon.


pollen tube growth

Growth of pollen via tip extension of the intine wall.


cardiac muscle tissue regeneration

The regrowth of cardiac muscle tissue to repair injured or damaged muscle fibers in the postnatal stage.


budding cell apical bud growth

Growth at the tip of a bud, in a cell that reproduces by budding.


inner ear sensory epithelium regeneration

The regrowth of lost or destroyed inner ear sensory epithelia.


elongation of arista core

The increase in length of the aristal core. The arista is the terminal segment of the antenna and consists of a central core and a series of lateral extensions.


vegetative meristem growth

The increase in size or mass of a vegetative meristem, a population of undifferentiated cells in a plant shoot which maintains a continuous balance between the production of stem cells and the incorporation of their derivatives into lateral organ primordia.


neural tissue regeneration

The regrowth of neural tissue following its loss or destruction.


radial growth involved in right ventricle morphogenesis

The morphogenic growth in which the right ventricle grows along a radial axis.


primary ovarian follicle growth involved in primary follicle stage

Increase in size of primary follicles including oocyte growth and granulosa and/or theca cell proliferation until more than one layer of granulosa cells is present (preantral follicle) as part of the primary follicle stage of oogenesis.


filamentous growth of a unicellular organism

The process in which a unicellular organism grows in a threadlike, filamentous shape.


seed growth

The increase in size or mass of a seed. A seed is a propagating organ formed in the reproductive cycle of a spermatophyte, derived from the ovule and enclosing an embryo.


collateral sprouting of injured axon

The process resulting in reformation of a growth cone by the tip of an injured axon, or in collateral sprouting of the axon. Collateral sprouting is the process in which outgrowths develop from the shafts of existing axons.


isotropic cell growth

The process in which a cell irreversibly increases in size uniformly in all directions. In general, a rounded cell morphology reflects isotropic cell growth.


cell elongation involved in imaginal disc-derived wing morphogenesis

The process in which a cell elongates and contributes to imaginal disc-derived wing morphogenesis.


inflorescence meristem growth

The increase in size or mass of an inflorescence meristem, a population of undifferentiated cells in a plant shoot which produces small leaves and then floral meristems, which will give rise to flowers.


axon extension involved in regeneration

Long distance growth of a single axon process involved in regeneration of the neuron.


filamentous growth of a population of unicellular organisms in response to pH

The process in which a group of unicellular organisms grow in a threadlike, filamentous shape in response to a pH stimulus. pH is a measure of the acidity or basicity of an aqueous solution.


cardiac chamber ballooning

The morphogenic growth in which the chambers of the heart expand in size, contributing to their shaping.


meristem growth

The increase in size or mass of a meristem, a region of tissue in a plant that is composed of one or more undifferentiated cells capable of undergoing mitosis and differentiation.


invasive growth in response to glucose limitation

A growth pattern exhibited by budding haploid cells under certain growth conditions, in which cells retain the typical axial budding pattern of haploids, but become elongated and fail to separate after division; during growth on a solid substrate, this results in penetration of cells into the agar medium. An example of this process is found in Saccharomyces cerevisiae.


developmental vegetative growth

The increase in size or mass of non-reproductive plant parts.


invasive growth in response to abiotic stimulus

The growth of colonies in filamentous chains of cells as a result of a abiotic stimulus. An example of this process is found in Candida albicans.


optic vesicle elongation

The developmental growth that results in the lengthening of the optic vesicle in the posterior direction.


invasive growth in response to biotic stimulus

The growth of colonies in filamentous chains of cells as a result of a biotic stimulus. An example of this is Candida albicans forming invasive filaments in agar medium in response to a serum stimulus.


primary growth

Growth of a plant structure from the time of its initiation by an apical meristem until its expansion is completed.


spongiotrophoblast layer developmental growth

The increase in size or mass of the spongiotrophoblast layer of the placenta where the increase in size or mass contributes to the progression of that layer over time from its formation to its mature state.


circumferential growth involved in left ventricle morphogenesis

The morphogenetic growth in which the left ventricle grows expanding its external boundary.


mechanosensory epithelium regeneration

The regrowth of lost or destroyed mechanosensory epithelia.


filamentous growth

The process in which a multicellular organism, a unicellular organism or a group of unicellular organisms grow in a threadlike, filamentous shape.


uterine wall growth

The regrowth of the endometrium and blood vessels in the uterus following menstruation, resulting from a rise in progesterone levels.


sprouting of injured axon

The process involved in sprouting of an injured axon.


cell growth involved in growth plate cartilage chondrocyte morphogenesis

The growth of a growth plate cartilage chondrocyte, where growth contributes to the shaping of the chondrocyte over time.


Broad distal phalanx of the 5th toe

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Broad phalanges of the hand

Increased width of the phalanges of the hand.


Broad distal phalanx of the thumb

Increased width of the distal phalanx of thumb.


Broad 1st metacarpal

Increased width of the 1st metacarpal. In contrast to the proximal phalanges of the digits 2-5, the proximal phalanx of the thumb is embryologically equivalent to the middle phalanges of the other digits, whereas the first metacarpal is embryologically of phalangeal origin and as such equivalent to the proximal phalanges of the other digits.


Spatulate thumbs

Spoon-shaped, broad thumbs.


Broad hallux phalanx

An increase in width in one or more phalanges of the big toe.


Broad middle phalanx of the 4th finger

Increased width of the middle phalanx of the 4th finger.


Broad metatarsal

Increased side-to-side width of a metatarsal bone.


Broad phalanges of the 3rd finger

Increased width of the phalanges of the 3rd finger.


Broad proximal phalanx of the 3rd finger

Increased width of the proximal phalanx of the 3rd finger.


Broad middle phalanx of the 2nd finger

Increased width of the middle phalanx of the second finger.


Broad radial metaphysis

Increase in width (breadth) of the radial metaphysis.


Broad clavicles

Increased width (cross-sectional diameter) of the clavicles.


Broad distal phalanx of finger

Abnormally wide (broad) distal phalanx of finger.


Broad first metatarsal

Increased side-to-side width of the first metatarsal bone.


Broad distal phalanx of the hallux

An increase in width of the distal phalanx of the big toe.


Broad phalanx

Increased side-to-side width of one or more phalanges of the fingers or toes.


Bulbous tips of toes

An abnormality of the morphology of the toes, such that the tips of the toes are prominent and bulbous.


Broad phalanges of the 4th finger

Increased width of the phalanges of the 4th finger.


Broad phalanx of the toes

Increased width of phalanx of one or more toes.


Broad proximal phalanges of the hand

Increased width of the proximal phalanges of the finger.


Broad ulna

Increased width of the ulna.


Broad proximal phalanx of the hallux

Increased width of proximal phalanx of big toe.


Broad middle phalanx of finger

Increased width of the middle phalanx of finger.


Broad proximal phalanx of the thumb

Increased width of the proximal phalanx of the thumb. In contrast to the proximal phalanges of the digits 2-5, the proximal phalanx of the thumb is embryologically equivalent to the middle phalanges of the other digits, whereas the first metacarpal is embryologically of phalangeal origin and as such equivalent to the proximal phalanges of the other digits.


Broad distal phalanx of the 5th finger

Increased width of the distal phalanx of the 5th finger.


Broad metacarpals

Abnormally broad metacarpal bones.


Broad proximal phalanx of the 4th finger

Increased width of the proximal phalanx of the 4th finger.


Broad distal phalanx of the 4th finger

Increased width of the distal phalanx of the 4th finger.


Broad proximal phalanx of the 5th finger

Increased width of the proximal phalanx of the 5th finger.


Expanded phalanges with widened medullary cavities


Broad proximal phalanx of toe

An increase in width of one ore more proximal toe phalanges.


Increased fibular diameter

Increased width of the cross sectional diameter of the fibula.


Broad phalanges of the 5th finger

Increased width of the phalanges of the 5th finger.


Broad middle phalanx of the 5th finger

Increased width of the middle phalanx of the 5th finger.


Broad radius

Increased width of the radius.


Broad middle phalanx of the 3rd finger

Increased width of the middle phalanx of the 3rd finger.


Broad proximal phalanx of the 2nd finger

Increased width of the proximal phalanx of the 2nd finger.


Broad distal phalanx of the toes

Increased width of the distal phalanx of toe of one or more toes.


Broad distal phalanx of the 2nd finger

Increased width of the distal phalanx of the 2nd finger.


Broad distal phalanx of the 3rd finger

Increased width of the distal phalanx of the 3rd finger.


Broad distal phalanges of all fingers

Abnormally wide (broad) distal phalanx of finger of all fingers.


Broad thumb

Increased thumb width without increased dorso-ventral dimension.


Abnormal sixth cranial nerve morphology

Any structural abnormality of the abducens nerve.


hemoglobin D disease

biolink:Disease biolink:DiseaseOrPhenotypicFeature biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:ThingWithTaxon

Hemoglobin D disease(HbD) is a hemoglobinopathy characterized by production of abnormal variant hemoglobin known as hemoglobin D, with no or mild clinical manifestations (splenomegaly, very mild anemia).


plant epidermal cell fate specification

The process in which a cell becomes capable of differentiating autonomously into a plant epidermal cell in an environment that is neutral with respect to the developmental pathway. Upon specification, the cell fate can be reversed.


atrichoblast fate specification

The process involved in the specification of an atrichoblast.


trichoblast fate specification

The process involved in the specification of a trichoblast.


Pseudoseizure

Sudden, involuntary seizure-like attacks that, unlike epileptic seizures, are not related to electrographic ictal discharges.


proximal epiphysis of fifth metacarpal bone

biolink:GrossAnatomicalStructure biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

A proximal epiphysis that is part of a metacarpal bone of digit 5 [Automatically generated definition].


negative regulation of convergent extension involved in neural plate elongation

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in neural plate elongation.


regulation of convergent extension involved in gastrulation

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in gastrulation.


positive regulation of convergent extension involved in notochord morphogenesis

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in notochord morphogenesis.


regulation of convergent extension involved in rhombomere morphogenesis

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in rhombomere morphogenesis.


positive regulation of convergent extension involved in somitogenesis

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in somitogenesis.


regulation of convergent extension involved in notochord morphogenesis

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in notochord morphogenesis.


negative regulation of convergent extension involved in gastrulation

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in gastrulation.


negative regulation of convergent extension involved in somitogenesis

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in somitogenesis.


regulation of convergent extension involved in neural plate elongation

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in neural plate elongation.


regulation of convergent extension involved in somitogenesis

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in somitogenesis.


negative regulation of convergent extension involved in notochord morphogenesis

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in notochord morphogenesis.


negative regulation of convergent extension involved in rhombomere morphogenesis

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in rhombomere morphogenesis.


positive regulation of convergent extension involved in neural plate elongation

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in neural plate elongation.


positive regulation of convergent extension involved in gastrulation

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in gastrulation.


positive regulation of convergent extension involved in rhombomere morphogenesis

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of convergent extension involved in rhombomere morphogenesis.


functioning pituitary gland neoplasm

A hormone producing pituitary gland tumor, associated with a hormonal syndrome.


TSH producing pituitary tumor

An adenoma or carcinoma of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that produces thyrotropin.


TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma

A rare adenoma of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that produces thyrotropin. It is usually associated with goiter and hyperthyroidism.


functioning pituitary gland adenoma

A hormone producing pituitary gland adenoma, associated with a hormonal syndrome.


Nelson syndrome

A syndrome that develops following bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing syndrome. The signs and symptoms result from the presence of an adenocorticotropin-secreting pituitary gland adenoma, and include enlargement of the sella turcica and pressure on the adjacent structures, and skin hyperpigmentation.


malignant thyroid stimulating hormone producing neoplasm of pituitary gland

A rare, hormonally functioning or non-functioning pituitary gland adenocarcinoma that produces thyrotropin.


functioning gonadotropic adenoma

Functioning gonadotropic adenoma is a very rare pituitary tumor, macroscopically characterized by a soft, well vascularized, variable sized adenoma, with occasional areas of hemorrage or necrosis, that secretes biologically active gonadotropins. In addition to common neurological signs due to mass effect (headache and/or visual field deterioration), additional clinical manifestations include menstrual irregularities (secondary amenorrhea, oligomenorhea or severe menorrhagia), galactorrhea, infertility or ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (in premenopausal women), testicular enlargement and, occasionally, hypogonadism (in men) and isosexual precocious puberty (in children).


Stage II Acral Lentiginous Melanoma AJCC v6 and v7

Stage II includes: IIA: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0); IIB: (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIC: (T4b, N0, M0).  T2b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T3a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  T3b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T4a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  T4b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of distant metastases. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Ed.)


positive regulation of calcineurin-mediated signaling

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of calcineurin-mediated signaling.


regulation of calcineurin-mediated signaling

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of calcineurin-mediated signaling.


negative regulation of calcineurin-mediated signaling

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of calcineurin-mediated signaling.


progressive relapsing multiple sclerosis

A multiple sclerosis that is characterized by steadily worsening symptoms and attacks during periods of remission with disease progression from the onset.


hepatic vein thrombosis

A condition in which the hepatic venous outflow is obstructed anywhere from the small hepatic veins to the junction of the inferior vena cava and the right atrium. Usually the blockage is extrahepatic and caused by blood clots (thrombus) or fibrous webs. Parenchymal fibrosis is uncommon.


Cutaneous stenosis of the external auditory canal


negative regulation of metanephric glomerulus development

Any process that decreases the rate, frequency or extent of metanephric glomerulus development, the progression of the metanephric glomerulus over time from its initial formation until its mature state. The metanephric glomerulus is a capillary tuft surrounded by Bowman's capsule in nephrons of the vertebrate kidney, or metanephros.


positive regulation of mesonephric glomerulus development

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of mesonephric glomerulus development.


regulation of mesonephric glomerulus development

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of mesonephric glomerulus development.


negative regulation of mesonephric glomerulus development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of mesonephric glomerulus development.


Metastatic Malignant Neoplasm to the Thyroid

A malignant neoplasm either directly extending to the thyroid gland from adjacent structures (e.g. pharynx, larynx, esophagus, cervical lymph nodes), or spreading to the thyroid gland from distant anatomic sites, most frequently kidney, lung, uterus, breast, and skin.  The majority of cases are carcinomas, lymphomas, and melanomas.


Metastatic malignant neoplasm to neck

A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the neck region from a malignancy in a local or distant anatomic site.


Metastatic malignant neoplasm to parathyroid gland

A malignant neoplasm either directly extending to the parathyroid glands from adjacent anatomic structures, or spreading to the parathyroid glands from distant anatomic sites, most frequently breast, lung, kidney, soft tissues, and skin.


Neck Carcinoma of Unknown Primary

A carcinoma that has metastasized to the neck region from an unknown primary anatomic site.


Metastatic malignant neoplasm to nasopharynx

A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the nasopharynx from another anatomic site.


Metastatic malignant neoplasm to oropharynx

A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the oropharynx from another anatomic site.


Metastatic malignant neoplasm to hypopharynx

A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the hypopharynx from another anatomic site.


Metastatic malignant neoplasm to larynx

A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the larynx from another anatomic site.


Neck Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Unknown Primary

A squamous cell carcinoma that has metastasized to the neck region from an unknown primary anatomic site.


Metastatic malignant neoplasm to pharynx

A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the pharynx from another anatomic site.


Recurrent Neck Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Unknown Primary

The reemergence of metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of unknown primary in the neck region after a period of remission.


Verruca plana

Slightly raised wart 2-5 mm in diameter often associated with viral infections, commonly persistent in immunodeficient individuals.


catechol catabolic process, ortho-cleavage

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of catechol via the ortho-cleavage pathway, in which the catechol aromatic ring is broken between the two carbon atoms bearing hydroxyl groups.


Hypoplastic iris stroma

Underdevelopment of the stroma of iris.


dADP catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of dADP, deoxyadenosine diphosphate (2'-deoxyadenosine 5'-diphosphate).


median dorsal digital artery for digit 1


dorsal digital artery of manus

Dorsal digital arteries arise from the bifurcation of dorsal metacarpal arteries. They travel along the sides and dorsal aspects of the phalanges of the middle finger, ring finger, and little finger. They communicate with the proper palmar digital arteries. They run with the dorsal digital nerves of ulnar nerve and dorsal digital nerves of radial nerve.


lateral dorsal digital artery for digit 5


icosanoid

Any member of the group of signalling molecules arising from oxidation of the three C20 essential fatty acids (EFAs) icosapentaenoic acid (EPA), arachidonic acid (AA) and dihomo-gamma-linolenic acid (DGLA).


Prostaglandin

Naturally occurring compounds derived from the parent C20 acid, prostanoic acid.


prostanoid

The family of natural prostaglandins and prostaglandin-like compounds including prostacyclins and thromboxanes.


Brown-Vialetto-van Laere syndrome 1

Any Brown-Vialetto-van Laere syndrome in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the SLC52A3 gene.


Pelvic girdle amyotrophy

Atrophy of the muscles of the pelvic girdle (also known as hip girdle), i.e., the gluteal muscles, the lateral rotators, the adductors, the psoas major and the iliacus muscle.


Amyotrophy of the musculature of the pelvis

Muscular atrophy affecting the muscles of the pelvis.


intravascular fasciitis

A rare self-limiting, rapidly growing, non-encapsulated benign neoplasm that arises from the vessels. It is characterized by the presence of plump spindle-shaped fibroblasts, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, chronic inflammatory infiltrate, red blood cell extravasation, and high mitotic activity.


Epithelium of paranasal sinus

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Stage IV Major Salivary Gland Carcinoma with Metastasis

Stage IV carcinoma of the major salivary glands with regional lymph nodes and/or distant metastases.


Cervical Micropapillary Adenocarcinoma

A rare, invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from the cervix and is characterized by a micropapillary architecture.


extraembryonic structure

A multicellular anatomical structure that is associated with an embryo and derived from the zygote from which it develops, but which does not contribute to the embryo proper or to structures that are part of the same organism after embryogenesis.


A steroid glucosiduronic acid that is calcitriol in which the hydroxy hydrogen at position 25 has been replaced by a beta-D-glucuronyl residue.


cleavage between 5.8S rRNA and 2S rRNA of tetracistronic rRNA transcript (SSU-rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, 2S rRNA, LSU-rRNA)

Endonucleolytic cleavage between the 5.8S rRNA and the 2S rRNA of an rRNA molecule originally produced as a tetracistronic rRNA transcript that contained the Small SubUnit (SSU) rRNA, the 5.8S rRNA, 2S rRNA, and the Large SubUnit (LSU) rRNA, in that order, from 5' to 3' along the primary transcript.


endonucleolytic cleavage of tetracistronic rRNA transcript (SSU-rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, 2S rRNA, LSU-rRNA)

Endonucleolytic cleavage of a pre-rRNA molecule originally produced as a tetracistronic rRNA transcript that contains the Small SubUnit (SSU) rRNA, the 5.8S rRNA, 2S rRNA, and the Large SubUnit (LSU) rRNA, in that order, from 5' to 3' along the primary transcript. Primary ribosomal RNA transcripts with four genes, in this order, are produced in the nuclei of D. melanogaster as well as in those of other dipteran species.


cleavage between SSU-rRNA and 5.8S rRNA of tetracistronic rRNA transcript (SSU-rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, 2S rRNA, LSU-rRNA)

Endonucleolytic cleavage between the SSU-rRNA and the 5.8S rRNA of an rRNA molecule originally produced as a tetracistronic rRNA transcript that contained the Small SubUnit (SSU) rRNA, the 5.8S rRNA, 2S rRNA, and the Large SubUnit (LSU) rRNA, in that order, from 5' to 3' along the primary transcript.


cleavage between 2S rRNA and LSU-rRNA of tetracistronic rRNA transcript (SSU-rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, 2S rRNA, LSU-rRNA)

Endonucleolytic cleavage between the LSU-rRNA and the 2S rRNA of an rRNA molecule originally produced as a tetracistronic rRNA transcript that contained the Small SubUnit (SSU) rRNA, the 5.8S rRNA, 2S rRNA, and the Large SubUnit (LSU) rRNA, in that order, from 5' to 3' along the primary transcript.


Late Stillbirth

Delivery of a dead fetus greater than 28 weeks gestational age and/or greater than 1,000 grams birth weight.


Pathologic Stage IVB Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma by AJCC v8 Pathologic Stage

A term that refers to the pathologic staging of gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition.


Pathologic Stage IIIB Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage IIIB includes: (T2, N2, M0, Any G); (T3, N1-2, M0, Any G); (T4a, N0-1, M0, Any G). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage IA Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G1); (T1a, N0, M0, GX). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage IIIA Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N2, M0, Any G); (T2, N1, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage 0 Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0, GN/A. Tis: High-grade dysplasia, defined as malignant cells confined to the epithelium by the basement membrane. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GN/A: Grade non-applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage IIA Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage IIA includes: (T2, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, GX). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage I Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0, G1); (T1a, N0, M0, GX); IB: (T1a, N0, M0, G2); (T1b, N0, M0, G1-2); (T1b, N0, M0, GX); IC: (T1, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, G1-2). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. T1b: Tumor invades the submucosa. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G2: Moderately differentiated. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage II Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage II includes: IIA: (T2, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, GX); IIB: (T1, N1, M0, Any G); (T3, N0, M0, Any G). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage III Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1, N2, M0, Any G); (T2, N1, M0, Any G); IIIB: (T2, N2, M0, Any G); (T3, N1-2, M0, Any G); (T4a, N0-1, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage IC Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage IC includes: (T1, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, G1-2). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. G2: Moderately differentiated. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage IVA Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N2, M0, Any G); (T4b, N0-2, M0, Any G); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage IIB Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage IIB includes: (T1, N1, M0, Any G); (T3, N0, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage IV Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N2, M0, Any G); (T4b, N0-2, M0, Any G); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1, Any G). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Pathologic Stage IB Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma AJCC v8

Stage IB includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G2); (T1b, N0, M0, G1-2); (T1b, N0, M0, GX). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. T1b: Tumor invades the submucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G2: Moderately differentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Refractory High Grade Burkitt-Like Lymphoma

High grade B-cell lymphoma Burkitt-like lymphoma resistant to treatment.


Recurrent High Grade Burkitt-Like Lymphoma

The reemergence of high grade B-cell lymphoma Burkitt-like lymphoma after a period of remission.


Stage II High Grade Adult Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma


Stage II High Grade Burkitt-Like Lymphoma

Stage II NHL means involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)


High Grade B-Cell Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma


Stage I High Grade Burkitt-Like Lymphoma

Stage I NHL means involvement of a single lymph node region (I) or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site (IE). (from PDQ)


Recurrent High Grade Adult Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma


Stage IV High Grade Adult Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma


Stage IV High Grade Burkitt-Like Lymphoma

Stage IV NHL means disseminated (multifocal) involvement of one or more extralymphatic sites with or without associated lymph node involvement or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement with distant (nonregional) nodal involvement. (from PDQ)


Stage III High Grade Adult Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma


Stage I High Grade Adult Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma


Stage III High Grade Burkitt-Like Lymphoma

Stage III NHL means involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) that may also be accompanied by localized involvement of an extralymphatic organ or site (IIIE), by involvement of the spleen (IIIS), or both (IIIS+E). (from PDQ)


High Grade Burkitt-Like Lymphoma

A high grade B-cell lymphoma showing greater pleomorphism in nuclear size and shape than the classical Burkitt lymphoma.


Patchy sclerosis of the proximal phalanx of the 3rd toe


Stage IVB Esophageal Squamous Cell Carcinoma


chronic sphenoidal sinusitis

Inflammation of the sphenoid sinus that typically lasts beyond eight weeks. It is caused by infections, allergies, and the presence of sinus polyps or a deviated septum. Signs and symptoms include headache, nasal discharge, swelling in the face, dizziness, and breathing difficulties.


thalian-diol desaturase activity

biolink:MolecularActivity biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:Occurrent biolink:OntologyClass biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

Catalysis of the reaction: a thalian-diol = a desaturated thalian-diol. This reaction is the introduction of a double bond to a thalian-diol molecule at carbon 15.


collagen type XXVII trimer

biolink:CellularComponent biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

A collagen homotrimer of alpha1(XXVII) chains. These trimers form thin, non-striated fibrils. Type XXVII collagen triple helices play a role during the calcification of cartilage and the transition of cartilage to bone.


collagen type II trimer

A collagen homotrimer of alpha1(II) chains; type II collagen triple helices associate to form fibrils.


collagen type XXIV trimer

A collagen homotrimer of alpha1(XXIV) chains; type XXIV collagen triple helices may participate in regulating type I collagen fibrillogenesis at specific anatomical locations during fetal development.


collagen type III trimer

A collagen homotrimer of alpha1(III) chains; type III collagen triple helices associate to form fibrils.


Benign Nasolacrimal Duct Neoplasm

A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the lacrimal duct.


Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis, cellular phase

A nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by the presence of lacunar cells, nodular growth, and the absence of fibrosis.


envenomation resulting in induction of edema in another organism

A process that begins with venom being forced into an organism by the bite or sting of another organism, and ends with the swelling of soft tissues of the bitten organism as a result of excess water accumulation.


aldosterone catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of aldosterone, a corticosteroid hormone that is produced by the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and regulates salt (sodium and potassium) and water balance.


C21-steroid hormone catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of C21-steroid hormones, steroid compounds containing 21 carbons which function as hormones.


progesterone catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of progesterone, a steroid hormone produced in the ovary which prepares and maintains the uterus for pregnancy. Also found in plants.


Unresectable Cervical Adenosquamous Carcinoma

Cervical adenosquamous carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection.


smooth muscle cell apoptotic process

Any apoptotic process in a smooth muscle cell. Smooth muscle consists of non-striated, elongated, spindle-shaped cell found lining the digestive tract, uterus, and blood vessels.


vascular associated smooth muscle cell apoptotic process

Any apoptotic process in a vascular associated smooth muscle cell.


negative regulation of chromatin organization

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of chromatin organization.


negative regulation of heterochromatin organization

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of heterochromatin organization.


negative regulation of silent mating-type cassette heterochromatin formation

Any process that decreases the frequency, rate, or extent of heterochromatin formation at silent mating-type cassette.


negative regulation of heterochromatin formation

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of heterochromatin formation.


negative regulation of regulatory ncRNA-mediated heterochromatin formation

Any process that decreases the frequency, rate or extent of non-coding RNA-mediated heterochromatin formation.


Scapular winging

Abnormal protrusion of the scapula away from the surface of the back.


Vesicovaginal fistula

The presence of a fistula connecting the urinary bladder to the vagina.


Urogenital fistula

The presence of a fistula affecting the genitourinary system.


Rectoperineal fistula

The presence of a fistula between the perineum and the rectum.


Urethrovaginal fistula

The presence of a fistula between the vagina and the urethra.


H-type rectovestibular fistula

Rectovestibular fistula with a normal anus is known as H-type fistula or double termination of the alimentary tract.


Perineal fistula

The presence of a fistula between the bowel and the perineum.


Anoperineal fistula

The presence of a fistula (abnormal tunnel) between the anal canal and the perineum.


Vaginal fistula

The presence of a fistula of the vagina.


Urachus fistula

Persistence of the urachal canal with drainage of urine from the bladder through the persistent allantois canal to the umbilicus.


Rectourethral fistula

An abnormal connection (fistula) between the rectum and the urethra.


Rectovaginal fistula

The presence of a fistula between the vagina and the rectum.


Rectoureteral fistula

An abnormal connection (fistula) between the rectum and the ureter.


Rectovestibular fistula

A congenital malformation characterized by an abnormal connection (fistula) between the rectum and the vulval vestibule, at the lower aspect of the vaginal opening.


Rectal fistula

The presence of a fistula affecting the rectum.


Bladder fistula

The presence of a fistula connecting the urinary bladder to another organ or the skin. The fistula can involve the bowel, the vagina, or rarely, the skin.


Colovesical fistula

An aberrant, pathological communication between the colon and the bladder.


Urethral fistula

The presence of an abnormal connection between the urethra and another organ or the skin.


Rectovesical fistula

An aberrant, pathological communication between the rectum and the bladder.


negative regulation of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition.


regulation of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition.


regulation of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition involved in heart valve formation

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition involved in heart valve formation.


negative regulation of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition involved in heart valve formation

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition involved in heart valve formation.


positive regulation of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition.


positive regulation of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition involved in heart valve formation

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of endocardial cushion to mesenchymal transition involved in heart valve formation.


protein-FAD linkage via S-(8alpha-FAD)-L-cysteine

The formation of a protein-FAD linkage via S-(8-alpha-FAD)-L-cysteine.


strand of vibrissa hair

A specialized hair usually employed for tactile sensation. Vibrissae hair grow around the nostrils, above the lips, and on other parts of the face of most mammals, and all primates except humans. vibrissae are different from other hairs because they are implanted in a special hair follicle incorporating a capsule of blood called a blood sinus and heavily innervated by sensory nerves[WP].


Recurrent Unspecified Lung Carcinoma

Lung carcinoma that has re-emerged after a period of remission.


Large cell lung cancer recurrent

The reemergence of large cell lung carcinoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Lung Non-Small Cell Squamous Carcinoma

The reemergence of lung squamous non-small cell carcinoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Bronchogenic Carcinoma

The reemergence of bronchogenic carcinoma after a period of remission.


Non-small cell lung cancer recurrent

The re-emergence of non-small cell lung carcinoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Lung Non-Squamous Non-Small Cell Carcinoma

The reemergence of non-squamous non-small cell lung carcinoma after a period of remission.


Adenosquamous cell lung cancer recurrent

The reemergence of adenosquamous lung carcinoma after a period of remission.


Lung adenocarcinoma recurrent

The re-emergence of lung adenocarcinoma after a period of remission.


Small cell lung cancer recurrent

The reemergence of small cell carcinoma of the lung after a period of remission.


Lung squamous cell carcinoma recurrent

The re-emergence of squamous cell lung carcinoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Extensive Stage Lung Small Cell Carcinoma

Extensive stage small cell lung carcinoma that has reemerged after a period of remission.


pituitary gland basophilic carcinoma

A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with basic dyes.


Stage IA Vaginal Cancer AJCC v8

Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor confined to the vagina, measuring 2.0 cm or less. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)


Stage I Vaginal Cancer AJCC v8

Stage I includes: IA: T1a, N0, M0; IB: T1b, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor confined to the vagina, measuring 2.0 cm or less. T1b: Tumor confined to the vagina, measuring more than 2.0 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)


Stage IB Vaginal Cancer AJCC v8

Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Tumor confined to the vagina, measuring more than 2.0 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)


negative regulation of prostaglandin secretion

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of the regulated release of a prostaglandin from a cell.


positive regulation of prostaglandin secretion involved in immune response

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the regulated release of a prostaglandin from a cell and contributes to the immune response.


perineal artery

The perineal artery (superficial perineal artery) arises from the internal pudendal artery, and turns upward, crossing either over or under the Transversus perinæi superficialis, and runs forward, parallel to the pubic arch, in the interspace between the Bulbocavernosus and Ischiocavernosus, both of which it supplies, and finally divides into several posterior scrotal branches which are distributed to the skin and dartos tunic of the scrotum. As it crosses the Transversus perinæi superficialis it gives off the transverse perineal artery which runs transversely on the cutaneous surface of the muscle, and anastomoses with the corresponding vessel of the opposite side and with the perineal and inferior hemorrhoidal arteries. It supplies the Transversus perinæi superficialis and the structures between the anus and the urethral bulb. [WP,unvetted].


Neutrophil Count 1000

Indicates a neutrophil count of at least 1000 per cubic millimeter.


Non-Neoplastic Chronic Lower Respiratory System Disorder

A non-neoplastic longstanding disorder of the lower respiratory system.


carnitine:acyl carnitine antiporter activity

Catalysis of the reaction: carnitine (mitochondrial) + acyl carnitine (cytoplasm) = carnitine (cytoplasm) + acyl carnitine (mitochondrial).


vulvar proximal-type epithelioid sarcoma

An epithelioid sarcoma of the proximal type involving the vulva.


Catalysis of the reaction: UDP-N-acetylgalactosamine + N-acetylneuraminyl-alpha-2,3-galactosyl-beta-oligosaccharide = UDP + N-acetylgalactosaminyl-N-acetylneuraminyl-alpha-2,3-galactosyl-beta-oligosaccharide.


Catalysis of the transfer of an N-acetylgalactosaminyl residue from UDP-N-acetyl-galactosamine to an acceptor molecule, forming a beta-1,4 linkage.


Abnormality of the thenar eminence

An abnormality of the thenar eminence, i.e., of the muscle on the palm of the human hand just beneath the thumb.


Small thenar eminence

Underdevelopment of the thenar eminence with reduced palmar soft tissue mass surrounding the base of the thumb.


branch of basilar artery

Any artery arising from the basilar artery.


Structure of intracranial artery

Arteries which have their origins within the intracranial cavity.


Parieto-Occipital Artery

An artery arising from the pericallosal artery that extends along the parieto-occipital sulcus to supply the medial and superolateral surfaces of the parietal lobe and sometimes the occipital lobe.


posterior spinal artery

A spinal artery that arises from the vertebral artery, adjacent to the medulla oblongata[WP,modified].


branch of vertebral artery

Any artery arising from the vertebral artery.


Splenial artery

An artery arising from the parieto-occipital artery that supplies the splenium, the posterior portion of the corpus callosum.


posterior meningeal artery

The posterior meningeal artery are small vessels which are branches of the ascending pharyngeal artery which supply the dura mater. It passes through the mastoid foramen before entering the cranium via the jugular foramen.


cerebral artery

One of three main pairs of arteries and their branches, which irrigate the cerebrum of the brain.


calcarine artery

An artery that branches from the medial occipital artery that aligns with the calcarine sulcus.


Collicular artery

An artery arising from the P1 segment of the posterior cerebral artery that runs along the quadrigeminal sulcus with branches supplying the superior and inferior colliculus.


Pontine Branch

A series of small arteries that arise from either side of the basilar artery to supply the pons.


posterior choroidal artery

Either of two arteries (medial or lateral) that arise from the posterior cerebral artery to supply the choroidal plexus and brainstem.


superior cerebellar artery

The superior cerebellar artery (SCA) arises near the termination of the basilar artery. It passes lateralward, immediately below the oculomotor nerve, which separates it from the posterior cerebral artery, winds around the cerebral peduncle, close to the trochlear nerve, and, arriving at the upper surface of the cerebellum, divides into branches which ramify in the pia mater and anastomose with those of the inferior cerebellar arteries. Several branches are given to the pineal body, the anterior medullary velum, and the tela chorioidea of the third ventricle. [WP,unvetted].


labyrinthine artery

A long slender branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery (85%-100% cases) or basilar artery (<15% cases), arises from near the middle of the artery; it accompanies the vestibulocochlear nerve through the internal acoustic meatus, and is distributed to the internal ear.


anterior choroidal artery

The anterior choroidal artery originates from the internal carotid artery, though it also rarely arises from the middle cerebral artery.


Intracranial Medullary Artery

A radicular artery extending along the dorsal or ventral root of the cervical ganglia that penetrates the vertebral bone to supply the spinal canal.


choroidal artery

One of two arteries (anterior and posterior choroidal artery) that supply blood to the choroid plexus, optic tract, hippocampus, globus pallidus, and other various brain regions.


cerebellar artery

An artery that supplies blood to the cerebellum.


branch of posterior cerebral artery

Any artery arising from the posterior cerebral artery.


Inferior Vermian Artery

A blood vessel that is the terminal branch of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery supplying the inferior vermis.


Tonsillohemispheric Artery

A terminal branch arising from the bifurcation of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery that supplies the biventral and inferior semilunar lobes, the tonsil, and sometimes part of the superior semilunar lobe.


anterior inferior cerebellar artery

A basilar artery branch that supplies the anterior portion of the inferior surface of the cerebellum.


posterior inferior cerebellar artery

The posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA), the largest branch of the vertebral, is one of the three main arterial blood supplies for the cerebellum.


Mesencephalic Perforating Artery

An artery that arises from the posterior cerebral artery and supplies the mid brain.


Posterior Circulation Intracranial Artery

Any of the arteries that are part of the intracranial posterior circulation.


Decreased renal tubular phosphate excretion


Refractory Testicular Lymphoma

Testicular lymphoma that is resistant to treatment.


testicular lymphoma

A lymphoma that arises from the testis and is not associated with lymphoma in another anatomic site.


Recurrent Testicular Lymphoma

The reemergence of testicular lymphoma after a period of remission.


Testicular Follicular Lymphoma

A distinctive variant of follicular lymphoma arising from the testis. It has been reported with higher frequency in children, but is also seen rarely in adults. It differs biologically from nodal follicular lymphoma because it lacks evidence of the BCL2 translocation. It is usually of high cytological grade, usually grade 3A, but has a good prognosis, even without additional therapy beyond surgical excision. (WHO 2017)


Testicular Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma

A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the testis. It predominantly affects older men. Patients usually present with a unilateral hard painless mass. Bilateral masses have been described in a minority of patients.


Testicular Nasal Type Extranodal NK/T-Cell Lymphoma

A nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma affecting the testis. Patients usually present with unilateral testicular enlargement. Bilateral involvement is rare. The prognosis is poor.


CD8-positive, alpha-beta intraepithelial T cell differentiation

The process in which a precursor cell type acquires the specialized features of a CD8-positive, alpha-beta intraepithelial T cell. Intraepithelial T cells are found among epithelial cells in mucosal areas and have distinct phenotypes and developmental pathways.


Malignant Pancreatic Somatostatinoma

A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the delta cells of the pancreas. It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of somatostatin and associated with diabetes mellitus, hypochlorhydria, gallbladder disease, diarrhea, steatorrhea, anemia, and weight loss. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.


Pancreatic Somatostatin-Producing Neuroendocrine Tumor

A usually malignant, somatostatin producing neuroendocrine tumor, arising from the delta cells of the pancreas.  It may or may not be associated with inappropriate secretion of somatostatin and an associated clinical syndrome.


pancreatic somatostatinoma

A neuroendocrine tumor arising from the delta cells of the pancreas. It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of somatostatin and associated with diabetes mellitus, hypochlorhydria, gallbladder disease, diarrhea, steatorrhea, anemia, and weight loss.


sorbose dehydrogenase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: L-sorbose + A = 5-dehydro-D-fructose + AH(2).


major salivary gland carcinoma

A carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland, submandibular gland, or sublingual gland.


major salivary gland carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma

A carcinoma that arises from a pleomorphic adenoma in the major salivary glands. It usually originates in the parotid gland. Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing tumor mass which grew rapidly in the past few months. Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive carcinoma have an excellent prognosis. In cases where there is invasion of the surrounding tissues, the clinical course is aggressive.


Recurrent Submandibular Gland Carcinoma

The reemergence of submandibular gland carcinoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Parotid Gland Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

The reemergence of parotid gland adenoid cystic carcinoma after a period of remission.


adenocarcinoma of parotid gland

An adenocarcinoma that arises from the parotid gland.  Representative examples include acinic cell carcinoma, basal cell adenocarcinoma, cystadenocarcinoma, and oncocytic carcinoma.


Stage IV Major Salivary Gland Carcinoma without Metastasis

Stage IV carcinoma of the major salivary glands without regional lymph nodes or distant metastases.


submandibular gland cancer

A malignant neoplasm involving the submandibular gland.


Submandibular Gland Squamous Cell Carcinoma

An invasive squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the submandibular gland.  It usually affects elderly patients and presents as a rapidly enlarging tumor mass, often associated with pain.


Stage IVC Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v8

Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Recurrent Submandibular Gland Undifferentiated Carcinoma

The reemergence of submandibular gland undifferentiated carcinoma after a period of remission.


mucoepidermoid carcinoma of submandibular gland

A mucoepidermoid carcinoma that involves the submandibular gland.


parotid gland squamous cell carcinoma

An invasive squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland. It usually affects elderly patients and presents as a rapidly enlarging tumor mass, often associated with pain.


Recurrent Submandibular Gland Acinic Cell Carcinoma

The reemergence of submandibular gland acinic cell carcinoma after a period of remission.


Stage III Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v7

Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, and/or tumor having extraparenchymal extension.  Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes.  T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IV Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v8

Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Moderately advanced disease.  Tumor invades skin, mandible, ear canal, and/or facial nerve. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, and/or tumor having extraparenchymal extension. T4b: Very advanced disease.  Tumor invades skull base and/or pterygoid plates and/or encases carotid artery. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or more than 3 cm but not more than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or metastases in multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-), or in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-). N3: Metastasis in a lymph node larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or in a single ipsilateral node larger than 3 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or multiple ipsilateral, contralateral, or bilateral nodes any with ENE(+). M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Major Salivary Gland Adenocarcinoma

An adenocarcinoma that arises from the parotid gland, submandibular gland, or sublingual gland.


Submandibular Gland Acinic Cell Carcinoma

An adenocarcinoma with serous acinar cell differentiation that arises from the submandibular gland.


Submandibular Gland Undifferentiated Carcinoma

A carcinoma that arises from the submandibular gland and is characterized by the presence of undifferentiated, anaplastic malignant epithelial cells.


adenocarcinoma of sublingual gland

An adenocarcinoma that arises from the sublingual gland.


Major Salivary Gland Cancer by AJCC v8 Stage

A term that refers to the staging of major salivary gland cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition.


Stage I Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v7

Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage IVA Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v7

Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Moderately advanced disease.  Tumor invades skin, mandible, ear canal, and/or facial nerve. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension.  Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes.  T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension.  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, and/or tumor having extraparenchymal extension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more than 3 cm but not more than 6 cm in greatest dimension, or in multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension, or in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Recurrent Submandibular Gland Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

The reemergence of submandibular gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma after a period of remission.


Recurrent Parotid Gland Carcinoma ex Pleomorphic Adenoma

The reemergence of parotid gland carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma after a period of remission.


Stage II Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v8

Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Recurrent Parotid Gland Carcinoma

The reemergence of parotid gland carcinoma after a period of remission.


Stage IVB Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v8

Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4b: Very advanced disease.  Tumor invades skull base and/or pterygoid plates and/or encases carotid artery. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or in a single ipsilateral node larger than 3 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or multiple ipsilateral, contralateral, or bilateral nodes any with ENE(+). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Recurrent Parotid Gland Squamous Cell Carcinoma

The reemergence of parotid gland squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission.


carcinoma of parotid gland

A carcinoma that involves the parotid gland.


Recurrent Submandibular Gland Squamous Cell Carcinoma

The reemergence of submandibular gland squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission.


Stage IVA Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v8

Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Moderately advanced disease.  Tumor invades skin, mandible, ear canal, and/or facial nerve. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, and/or tumor having extraparenchymal extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or more than 3 cm but not more than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or metastases in multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-), or in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


sublingual gland carcinoma

A carcinoma that arises from the sublingual gland. Representative examples include cystadenocarcinoma and mucoepidermoid carcinoma.


Stage 0 Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v8

Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Major Salivary Gland Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the parotid or submandibular gland.


Recurrent Parotid Gland Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

The reemergence of parotid gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma after a period of remission.


major salivary gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A carcinoma that arises from the major salivary glands. It usually arises from the parotid gland. It is the most common primary carcinoma of the salivary glands and usually presents as a firm and painless mass. It is characterized by the presence of epidermoid cells, mucus producing cells, and cells of intermediate type. The majority of cases have a favorable outcome.


Recurrent Parotid Gland Acinic Cell Carcinoma

The reemergence of parotid gland acinic cell carcinoma after a period of remission.


major salivary gland adenoid cystic carcinoma

An aggressive carcinoma that arises from the major salivary glands. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial and myoepithelial cells forming cribriform, tubular, and solid patterns. It usually presents as a slow growing mass. Patients develop pain because of the tendency of these carcinomas to invade perineural tissues.


Major Salivary Gland Cancer by AJCC v7 Stage

A term that refers to the staging of major salivary gland cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition.


Submandibular Gland Carcinoma ex Pleomorphic Adenoma

A carcinoma that arises from a pleomorphic adenoma in the submandibular gland.  Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing tumor mass which grew rapidly in the past few months.  Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive carcinoma have an excellent prognosis.  In cases where there is invasion of the surrounding tissues, the clinical course is aggressive.


Major Salivary Gland Acinic Cell Carcinoma

An adenocarcinoma with serous acinar cell differentiation that arises from the major salivary glands.  The vast majority of cases occur in the parotid gland.  Patients usually present with a slow growing mass in the parotid area.


parotid gland acinic cell carcinoma

An adenocarcinoma with serous acinar cell differentiation that arises from the parotid gland. Patients usually present with a slow growing mass in the parotid area.


submandibular gland adenocarcinoma

An adenocarcinoma that arises from the submandibular gland. Representative examples include polymorphic low-grade adenocarcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma.


mucoepidermoid carcinoma of parotid gland

A mucoepidermoid carcinoma that involves the parotid gland.


parotid gland carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma

A carcinoma that arises from a pleomorphic adenoma in the parotid gland. Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing tumor mass which grew rapidly in the past few months. Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive carcinoma have an excellent prognosis. In cases where there is invasion of the surrounding tissues, the clinical course is aggressive.


Stage IV Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v7

Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Moderately advanced disease.  Tumor invades skin, mandible, ear canal, and/or facial nerve. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension.  Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes.  T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension.  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, and/or tumor having extraparenchymal extension.  T4b: Very advanced disease.  Tumor invades skull base and/or pterygoid plates and/or encases carotid artery. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more than 3 cm but not more than 6 cm in greatest dimension, or in multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension, or in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph node, more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Recurrent Submandibular Gland Carcinoma ex Pleomorphic Adenoma

The reemergence of submandibular gland carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma after a period of remission.


Stage I Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v8

Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Parotid Gland Undifferentiated Carcinoma

A carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland and is characterized by the presence of undifferentiated, anaplastic malignant epithelial cells.


parotid gland adenoid cystic carcinoma

An aggressive carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial and myoepithelial cells forming cribriform, tubular, and solid patterns. It usually presents as a slow growing mass. Patients develop pain because of the tendency of these carcinomas to invade perineural tissues.


Recurrent Submandibular Gland Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

The reemergence of submandibular gland adenoid cystic carcinoma after a period of remission.


Stage III Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v8

Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, and/or tumor having extraparenchymal extension.  T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension and ENE(-). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)


Stage IVC Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v7

Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Stage II Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v7

Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Recurrent Parotid Gland Undifferentiated Carcinoma

The reemergence of parotid gland undifferentiated carcinoma after a period of remission.


submandibular gland adenoid cystic carcinoma

An aggressive carcinoma that arises from the submandibular gland. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial and myoepithelial cells forming cribriform, tubular, and solid patterns. It usually presents as a slow growing mass. Patients develop pain because of the tendency of these carcinomas to invade perineural tissues.


Stage IVB Major Salivary Gland Cancer AJCC v7

Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T4b: Very advanced disease.  Tumor invades skull base and/or pterygoid plates and/or encases carotid artery. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node, more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


autosomal recessive osteopetrosis 4

Any autosomal recessive malignant osteopetrosis in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the CLCN7 gene.


AIDS-Related Plasmablastic Lymphoma of the Oral Mucosa

A plasmablastic oral mucosa lymphoma in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.


AIDS-Related Plasmablastic Lymphoma of Mucosa Site

A plasmablastic mucosal site lymphoma in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.


Plasmablastic Lymphoma of the Oral Mucosa

A plasmablastic lymphoma arising in the oral cavity, usually associated with HIV infection.


parietomastoid suture

Unites the mastoid process of the temporal with the region of the mastoid angle of the parietal[WP:Squamosal_suture].


localized junctional epidermolysis bullosa, non-Herlitz type

Junctional epidermolysis bullosa, localized non-Herlitz-type is a form of non-Herlitz junctional epidermolysis bullosa (JEB-nH) characterized by localized blistering, and dystrophic or absent nails.


junctional epidermolysis bullosa, non-Herlitz type

Junctional epidermolysis bullosa, non-Herlitz (JEB-nH) is a subtype of junctional epidermolysis bullosa (JEB) characterized by the presence of skin and mucosal blistering, nail dystrophy or nail absence and enamel hypoplasia.


generalized junctional epidermolysis bullosa non-Herlitz type

Generalized non-Herlitz-type junctional epidermolysis bullosa is a form of non-Herlitz-type junctional epidermolysis bullosa (JEB-nH) characterized by generalized skin blistering, atrophic scarring, nail dystrophy or nail absence, and enamel hypoplasia, with extracutaneous involvement.


Typical perifissural nodule

A perifissural nodule that has contact with the interlobar septum (and is therefore considered typical).


Abnormal hypopharynx morphology

A structural anomaly of the hypopharyx, which is the most inferior portion of the pharynx. The hypopharynx continues from the oropharynx at the pharyngoepiglottic fold superiorly and extends inferiorly to the level of the inferior aspect of the cricoid cartilage, which marks the beginning of the cervical esophagus.


Bifid epiglottis

A midline anterior-posterior cleft of the epiglottis that involves at least two-thirds of the epiglottic leaf. It is a useful feature for clinical diagnosis because it appears to be very rare in syndromes other than Pallister-Hall-Syndrome and is also rare as an isolated malformation.


Abnormal epiglottis morphology

An abnormality of the epiglottis.


Hypoplasia of the epiglottis

Hypoplasia of the epiglottis.


Aplasia/Hypoplasia of the Epiglottis

This term applies if the Epiglottis is absent or hypoplastic.


Aplasia of the epiglottis

Absence of the epiglottis.


bipolar cellular bud site selection

The process of defining subsequent sites of bud emergence such that budding takes place at alternating poles of a budding cell.


acute intestinal ischemia

Ischemia of the intestine that is rapid in onset.


chronic gonococcal salpingitis

Chronic form of gonococcal salpingitis.


Abnormal circulating gastrin concentration

An abnormal concentration of gastrin in the blood.


glyceollin synthase activity

Catalysis of the reactions: 2-dimethylallyl-(6aS,11aS)-3,6a,9-trihydroxypterocarpan + NADPH + H+ + O2 = glyceollin II or glyceollin III + NADP+ + 2 H2O, and 4-dimethylallyl-(6aS,11aS)-3,6a,9-trihydroxypterocarpan + NADPH + H+ + O2 = glyceollin I + NADP+ + 2 H2O.


response to tetralin

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a tetralin stimulus.


negative regulation of tetrapyrrole catabolic process

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of tetrapyrrole catabolic process.


negative regulation of chlorophyll catabolic process

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of chlorophyll catabolic process.


negative regulation of telomeric loop formation

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of telomeric loop formation.


response to symbiotic fungus

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a stimulus from a symbiotic fungus, a fungus living in close physical association with another organism.


detection of symbiotic fungus

The series of events in which a stimulus from a symbiotic fungus, a fungus living in close physical association with another organism, is received and converted into a molecular signal.


positive regulation of ferricrocin biosynthetic process

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of ferricrocin biosynthetic process.


nuclear proteasome regulatory particle, lid subcomplex

The subunits that form the peripheral lid of the regulatory particle of a proteasome located in the nucleus of a cell.


Breast Cellular Fibroadenoma

A fibroadenoma characterized by the presence of a pericanalicular growth pattern, increased stromal cellularity, and less than 2 mitoses per 10 high-power fields.


A disorder seen following cancer chemotherapy. It typically manifests a few years after initiation of epipodophyllotoxin chemotherapy. Mutagenic potential of these non-intercalating DNA topoisomerase II inhibitors is believed to be increased with concurrent use of asparaginase or granulocyte colony-stimulating factor. Balanced translocations involving chromosomal bands 11q23 and 21q22 are commonly associated with this disorder. Clinical signs may include fatigue, dyspnea, bruising and frequent infections. Clinical course usually progresses to acute myeloid leukemia though most epipodophyllotoxin-related leukemias do not have an antecedent myelodysplastic phase. Prognosis is dismal with survivability usually less than one year.


cervix glandular epithelium

A glandular epithelium that is part of a uterine cervix.


endocervical epithelium

The glandular epithelium that lines the endocervix.


liver inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor

A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the liver. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells.


paratyphoid fever

A condition resembling typhoid fever that is caused by infection by Salmonella enterica serovar Parathyphi.


phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase deficiency, cytosolic

PEPCK1 deficiency is a rare inborn error of metabolism disorder, characterized by the deficiency of the enzyme PEPCK1, one of the enzymes needed for gluconeogenesis, the process by which organisms produce sugars (namely glucose) from non-carbohydrate precursors (such as amino acids). The symptoms described in the few cases reported in the medical literature suggest that there may be variation in the severity of the symptoms ranging from severe early-onset cases, to milder late-onset presentations. In severe cases symptoms may include persistent and very low levels of blood's sugar in newborns (neonatal hypoglycemia), failure to thrive, build-up of lactic acid in the blood (lactic acidosis), liver enlargement (hepatomegaly) and liver failure leading to neurological degeneration. Milder cases present during childhood with fewer and less serious liver problems. Infections and fasting may trigger the symptoms. PEPCK1 deficiency inheritance is autosomal recessive. It is caused by mutations in the PEPCK1 gene. Some researchers believe that the severity of the disease depend upon the mutations resulting in less or more PEPCK1 activity (the more active the enzyme is, the less severe the disease is, and vice versa). Treatment depend on the symptoms and may include giving extra carbohydrates during heavy exercise and illness or other times of fasting (formal sick day regimen) by the dietitian.PEPCK1 is the cytosolic form of the phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) enzyme, the other being the mitochondrial (PEPCK2).


NK T cell activation involved in immune response

The change in morphology and behavior of a mature or immature natural killer T cell resulting from exposure to a mitogen, cytokine, chemokine, cellular ligand, or an antigen for which it is specific, leading to the initiation or perpetuation of an immune response.


NK T cell proliferation involved in immune response

The expansion of a NK T cell population by cell division as part of an immune response.


diaphragmatic eventration

A congenital or acquired abnormality characterized by elevation of the hemidiaphragm.


Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor Inhibitor-Induced Acneiform Lesion

Acneiform dermatitis caused by epidermal growth factor receptor inhibitory therapy in a dose-dependent manner.


EBV-Related Carcinoma

Carcinoma that develops in individuals infected with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), and in which there is a well-documented association between the neoplastic process and EBV.


Epstein-Barr virus-associated gastric carcinoma

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-associated gastric carcinoma (EBVaGC) is a rare form of gastric carcinoma (seen in approximately 10% of cases) with a male predominance, characterized by a latent EBV infection in gastric carcinoma cells, diffuse-type histology, a proximal location (in the body and cardia of the stomach) and a relatively favorable prognosis.


negative regulation of B cell deletion

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate, or extent of B cell deletion.


regulation of B cell anergy

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of B cell anergy.


regulation of central B cell anergy

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of central B cell anergy.


positive regulation of peripheral B cell anergy

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of peripheral B cell anergy.


negative regulation of central B cell deletion

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate, or extent of central B cell deletion.


negative regulation of central B cell tolerance induction

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate, or extent of central B cell tolerance induction.


negative regulation of peripheral B cell anergy

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate, or extent of peripheral B cell anergy.


regulation of peripheral B cell anergy

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of peripheral B cell anergy.


negative regulation of B cell tolerance induction

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate, or extent of B cell tolerance induction.


negative regulation of central B cell anergy

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate, or extent of central B cell anergy.


negative regulation of B cell anergy

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate, or extent of B cell anergy.


positive regulation of B cell anergy

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of B cell anergy.


positive regulation of central B cell tolerance induction

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of central B cell tolerance induction.


regulation of peripheral B cell deletion

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of peripheral B cell deletion.


positive regulation of central B cell anergy

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of central B cell anergy.


positive regulation of peripheral B cell deletion

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of peripheral B cell deletion.


regulation of B cell deletion

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of B cell deletion.


regulation of central B cell deletion

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of central B cell deletion.


positive regulation of B cell deletion

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of B cell deletion.


negative regulation of peripheral B cell deletion

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate, or extent of peripheral B cell deletion.


regulation of central B cell tolerance induction

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of central B cell tolerance induction.


positive regulation of central B cell deletion

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of central B cell deletion.


leukocyte adhesion deficiency 3

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type III (LAD-III) is a form of LAD characterized by both severe bacterial infections and a severe bleeding disorder.


meningeal artery

One of the arteries supplying a meninix[Automatically generated definition].


middle meningeal artery

The middle meningeal artery is typically the third branch of the first part (retromandibular part) of the maxillary artery; one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. After branching off the maxillary artery in the infratemporal fossa, it runs through the foramen spinosum to supply the dura mater and the calvaria. The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries which supply the meninges, the others being the anterior meningeal artery and the posterior meningeal artery. In approximately half of subjects it branches into an accessory meningeal artery. The middle meningeal artery runs beneath the pterion. It is vulnerable to injury at this point, where the skull is thin. Rupture of the artery may give rise to an epidural hematoma.


anterior meningeal artery

A meningeal branch to the dura mater arising from the anterior ethmoidal artery.


Low Grade Pancreatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia

Pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of low grade epithelial dysplasia.


Pancreatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia-1A

A pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of tall columnar cells that form flat architectural patterns.  Mild cytological atypia is present.


Moderate pancreatic duct dysplasia

A pancreatic mucinous intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of papillary and less often flat architectural patterns.  Moderate cytological atypia is present with some loss of nuclear polarity, nuclear crowding or hyperchromatism.


Pancreatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia-1B

A pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of tall columnar cells that form papillary, micropapillary, or basally pseudostratified architectural patterns.  Mild cytological atypia is present.


Pancreatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia-1

A pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of tall columnar cells that form flat or papillary, micropapillary, and basally pseudostratified architectural patterns.  Mild cytological atypia is present.


Early balding

Loss of scalp hair at an earlier than normal age.


mesethmoid-premaxillary joint

Joint that articulates the mesethmoid and premaxilla. Mesethmoid-premaxillary joint is paired.


SmD-containing SMN-Sm protein complex

An SMN-Sm protein complex formed by the association of the methylated Sm proteins B/B', D1, D2, D3, E, F, and G with the SMN complex.


Patient-Specific Neoantigen-Positive Malignant Solid Neoplasm

A malignant solid neoplasm that expresses unique tumor-specific neoantigens in a single patient.


sulfite reductase (coenzyme F420) activity

Catalysis of the reaction: sulfite + 3 1,5-dihydrocoenzyme F420 = hydrogen sulfide + 3 H2O + 3 coenzyme F420. 1,5-dihydrocoenzyme F420 is also known as reduced coenzyme F420.


mammary gland smooth muscle

A portion of smooth muscle tissue that is part of a mammary gland [Automatically generated definition].


negative regulation of cellular response to drug

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of cellular response to drug.


Retinal fold

A wrinkle of retinal tissue projecting outward from the surface of the retina and visible as a line on fundoscopy.


Retinal detachments and defects, unspecified

An imperfection if the retina of the eye in association with detachment of the retina from its blood supply.


rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

Retinal detachment secondary to retinal tear or break.


Tractional retinal detachment

A type of retinal detachment arising due to a combination of contracting retinal membranes, abnormal vitreoretinal adhesions, and vitreous changes. It is usually seen in the context of diseases that induce a fibrovascular response, e.g. diabetes.


GMP 5'-nucleotidase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 5'-GMP + H2O = guanosine + phosphate.


chromosome 4Q32.1-q32.2 triplication syndrome


partial duplication of the long arm of chromosome 4

Chromosome 4q duplication is a chromosome abnormality characterized by an extra copy (duplication) of genetic material on the long arm (q) of chromosome 4. The severity and specific symptoms depend on the size and location of the duplication, and which genes are involved. Features that have been described in some people with chromosome 4q duplication include developmental delay, intellectual disability, behavioral problems, birth defects, and distinctive facial features. Most cases are inherited from an unaffected parent with a chromosomal rearrangement called a balanced translocation. Some cases are not inherited and occur sporadically. Treatment is based on the signs and symptoms present in each person.


distal trisomy 4q

Distal trisomy 4q is a rare chromosomal anomaly syndrome, resulting from the partial duplication of the long arm of chromosome 4, with highly variable phenotype typically characterized by psychomotor delay, intellectual disability, craniofacial dysmorphism (microcephaly, low-set, prominent ears, downslanting palpebral fissures, hypertelorism, epicanthic folds, broad, prominent nasal bridge, high arched and cleft palate, micro-/retrognathia), seizures, as well as tooth and digital anomalies (clinodactyly, polydactyly). Cardiac malformations, renal anomalies, cryptorchidism, hypotonia and hearing impairment have also been reported.


Chronic gouty nephropathy

Chronic kidney disease resulting from deposition of urate crystals or microtophi in the medullary interstitium.


Non-Neoplastic Kidney Disorder

A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the renal parenchyma and/or renal pelvis. Representative examples include glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis.


Minimal mesangial lupus nephritis

A subclass of lupus nephritis with normal glomeruli by light microscopy, but mesangial immune deposits by immunofluorescence.


Nephrotic Syndrome - ADCK4 Associated

Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the ADCK4 gene.


multicystic dysplastic kidney

Multicystic dysplastic kidney (MCDK) is a congenital anomaly of the kidney and urinary tract (CAKUT) in which one or both kidneys (unilateral or bilateral MCDK respectively) are large, distended by multiple cysts, and non-functional.


Nephrotic Syndrome - MYO1E Associated

Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the MYO1E gene.


karyomegalic interstitial nephritis

Any interstitial nephritis in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the FAN1 gene.


Obesity Related Glomerulopathy

Diffuse glomerular (greater than 50% of glomeruli) hypertrophy (greater than 250 micron diameter) that occurs in the context of obesity.


tubulointerstitial kidney disease, autosomal dominant, 2

An inherited disorder that causes a gradual loss of kidney function, caused by a mutation in the MUC1 gene that leads to production of an abnormal mucin 1 protein, which deposits in the kidney and leads to slow loss of kidney function.


Proximal tubulopathy

Dysfunction of the proximal tubule, which is the portion of the duct system of the nephron of the kidney which leads from Bowman's capsule to the loop of Henle.


Membranous Nephropathy - THSD7A Induced

Membranous nephropathy due to thrombospondin type-1 domain-containing protein 7A (THSD7A) antibodies.


Pauci-Immune Glomerulonephritis - Renal Limited

Glomerulonephritis in which anti-neutrophil cytoplasm antibody (ANCA) is almost always present and vasculitis is limited to the kidney.


Acute Cortical Necrosis

Acute kidney injury caused by ischemic necrosis of the renal cortex.


steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome

Nephrotic syndrome, occurring in the pediatric population, in which proteinuria does not normalize with administration of steroids; this condition is unresponsive to a minimum of four weeks administration of oral corticosteroids.


end stage renal failure

Long-standing and persistent renal disease with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 15 ml/min.


Nephropathy due to Ciclosporin

Kidney damage resulting from ciclosporin.


Chronic kidney disease due to hypertension

Longstanding kidney disease as a complication of hypertension.


Stage 1 chronic kidney disease

A type of chronic kidney disease with normal or increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR at least 90 mL/min/1.73 m2).


Nephrotic Syndrome - Simian Virus 40 Associated

Nephrotic syndrome associated with a simian virus 40 infection.


Cryoglobulinemic Glomerulonephritis Secondary to Systemic Disease

Cryoglobulinemia glomerulonephritis associated with chronic disease, often inflammatory conditions.


Pierson syndrome

Pierson syndrome is characterized by the association of congenital nephrotic syndrome and ocular anomalies with microcoria.


Nephrotic Syndrome - Human Immunodeficiency Virus Associated

Nephrotic syndrome associated with human immunodeficiency virus infection.


pyonephrosis

Pus within the collecting system of the kidney.


Uric acid nephropathy acute

Kidney damage resulting from uric acid precipitation within the renal tubules.


contrast-induced nephropathy

Kidney damage resulting from exposure to contrast agents.


Diffuse lupus nephritis

A subclass of lupus nephritis with active or inactive diffuse, segmental or global endocapillary or extracapillary glomerulonephritis involving at least 50% of all glomeruli, typically with diffuse subendothelial immune deposits, with or without mesangial alterations.


Tubulointerstitial nephritis resulting from a drug exposure.


Renal Pelvis Fibroepithelial Polyp

A benign, mesodermal tumor located in the renal pelvis.


Nephrotic syndrome with lesion of proliferative glomerulonephritis

A renal functional disorder characterized by proteinuria, edema, hyperlipidemia and hypoalbuminemia. It results from damage to the renal vascular filtration apparatus. It is further characterized by an inflammatory reaction of the glomerular capillaries due to the proliferation of mesangial cells and expansion of the mesangial matrix. Sequelae may include hypertension, atherosclerosis, infection, hypercoagulablity and renal failure.


Reflux nephropathy (disorder)

Chronic kidney damage due to vesicoureteral reflux.


Nephropathy due to Tacrolimus

Kidney damage resulting from tacrolimus.


Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome - Rubivirus Associated

Nephrotic syndrome associated with rubella, most commonly presenting in the first three months of life.


Nephrotic Syndrome - Infection Associated

Nephrotic syndrome associated with an infectious process.


Glomerular vascular disorder

A disorder that is caused by pathologic changes in the glomerular vasculature.


Nephrotic Syndrome - SMARCAL1 Associated

Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the SMARCAL1 gene.


glomerulopathy with fibronectin deposits 2

Any fibronectin glomerulopathy in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the FN1 gene.


Nephrotic Syndrome - CFH Associated

Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the CFH gene.


Chronic glomerulonephritis

A chronic, persistent inflammation of the glomeruli, which is slowly progressive, leading to impaired kidney function.


Acute renal papillary necrosis with renal failure

Sudden and sustained deterioration of the kidney function with decreased glomerular filtration rate, and concommittant necrosis of the renal papillae; representative causes include sickle cell disease, heave analgesic use, diabetes mellitus, and pyelonephritis.


Nephrotic Syndrome - ITGA3 Associated

Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the ITGA3 gene.