dolichyl-phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: dolichyl phosphate + H2O = dolichol + phosphate.


biolink:MolecularActivity biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:Occurrent biolink:OntologyClass biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

Catalysis of the reaction: (9S,10S)-10-hydroxy-9-(phosphonooxy)octadecanoate + H2O = (9S,10S)-9,10-dihydroxyoctadecanoate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 1D-myo-inositol 1,2,4,5-tetrakisphosphate + H2O = 1D-myo-inositol 1,2,4-trisphosphate + phosphate.


mannosyl-inositol phosphorylceramide phospholipase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: mannosyl-inositol phosphorylceramide + H2O = C26-phytoceramide + mannosylphosphorylinositol.


phosphatidylglycerophosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: phosphatidylglycerophosphate + H2O = phosphatidylglycerol + phosphate.


triphosphoric monoester hydrolase activity

Catalysis of the hydrolysis of a triphosphoester to give a triphosphate group and a free hydroxyl group.


deoxynucleotide 3'-phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: a deoxynucleoside 3'-phosphate + H2O = a deoxynucleoside + phosphate.


protein arginine phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: protein arginine phosphate + H2O = protein arginine + phosphate.


cardiolipin hydrolase activity

Catalysis of the hydrolysis of cardiolipin (1,3-bis(3-phosphatidyl)glycerol), releasing phosphatidic acid (PA).


deoxynucleoside triphosphate hydrolase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: dNTP + H2O = 2'-deoxynucleoside + H+ + triphosphate.


acireductone synthase activity

Catalysis of the reactions: 5-(methylthio)-2,3-dioxopentyl phosphate + H2O = 1,2-dihydroxy-5-(methylthio)pent-1-en-3-one + phosphate; (1a) 5-(methylthio)-2,3-dioxopentyl phosphate = 2-hydroxy-5-(methylthio)-3-oxopent-1-enyl phosphate; (1b) 2-hydroxy-5-(methylthio)-3-oxopent-1-enyl phosphate + H2O = 1,2-dihydroxy-5-(methylthio)pent-1-en-3-one + phosphate.


NADPH phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: NADPH + H2O = NADH + hydrogenphosphate.


5-phospho-alpha-D-ribosyl 1,2-cyclic phosphate phosphodiesterase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 5-phosphonato-alpha-D-ribose cyclic-1,2-phosphate + H2O <=> H+ + alpha-D-ribose 1,5-bisphosphate.


mannosyl-diinositol phosphorylceramide phospholipase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: mannosyl-diinositol phosphorylceramide + H2O = C26-phytoceramide + mannosyldiphosphorylinositol.


sedoheptulose-bisphosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: sedoheptulose 1,7-bisphosphate + H2O = sedoheptulose 7-phosphate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: nucleoside 2',3'-cyclic phosphate + H2O = nucleoside 2'-phosphate.


inositol pentakisphosphate phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: myo-inositol pentakisphosphate + H2O = myo-inositol tetrakisphosphate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 2-(alpha-D-mannosyl)-3-phosphoglycerate + H2O = 2-(alpha-D-mannosyl)-D-glycerate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 2-hydroxy-3-keto-5-methylthiopentenyl-1-phosphate + H2O = 1,2-dihydroxy-5-(methylthio)pent-1-en-3-one + phosphate. 2-hydroxy-3-keto-5-methylthiopentenyl-1-phosphate is also known as HK-MTPenyl-P, and 1,2-dihydroxy-3-keto-5-methylthiopentene as DHK-MTPene.


myosin-light-chain-phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: myosin light-chain phosphate + H2O = myosin light chain + phosphate.


FMN phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: FMN + H2O = riboflavin + hydrogenphosphate.


NADP phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + NADP+ = NAD+ + phosphate.


myosin phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: phosphomyosin + H2O = myosin + phosphate.


5'-deoxynucleotidase activity

Catalysis of the reaction:a 2'-deoxyribonucleoside 5'-monophosphate + H20=a 2'-deoxyribonucleoside + phosphate.


2-deoxyglucose-6-phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 2-deoxy-D-glucose-6-phosphate + H2O = 2-deoxy-D-glucose + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: (2R)-2,3-bisphosphoglycerate + H2O = (2R)-2-phosphoglycerate + phosphate.


protein tyrosine phosphatase activity, via thiol-phosphate intermediate

The catalysis of phosphate removal from a phosphotyrosine using cysteine as a nucleophile and proceed by means of a thiol-phosphate intermediate.


Catalysis of the reaction: S-methyl-3-phospho-1-thio-D-glycerate + H2O = S-methyl-1-thio-D-glycerate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: inositol-1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate + H2O = inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: inositol-1,4,5,6-tetrakisphosphate + H2O = inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: O-phosphoethanolamine + H2O = ethanolamine + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: [glycogen-synthase D] + H2O = [glycogen-synthase I] + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: [acyl-carrier protein] + H2O = 4'-phosphopantetheine + apoprotein.


Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + 1-alkyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoethanolamine = ethanolamine + 1-alkyl-sn-glycerol 3-phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: inositol-1,3,4,6-tetrakisphosphate + H2O = inositol-3,4,6-trisphosphate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 1-phosphatidyl-1D-myo-inositol 4,5-bisphosphate + H2O = 1-phosphatidyl-1D-myo-inositol phosphate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 3-ADP-2-phosphoglycerate + H2O = 3-ADP-glycerate + phosphate.


FMN hydrolase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: FMN + H2O = riboflavin + phosphate.


glycerol-1-phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: glycerol-1-phosphate + H2O = glycerol + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: D-myo-inositol 1,3,4-trisphosphate + H2O = myo-inositol 3,4-bisphosphate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + 1-(sn-glycero-3-phospho)-1D-myoinositol = 1D-myo-inositol 1-phosphate + glycerol.


[isocitrate dehydrogenase (NADP+)] phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: [isocitrate dehydrogenase] phosphate + H2O = [isocitrate dehydrogenase] + phosphate.


phosphatidylglycerol phospholipase C activity

Catalysis of the reaction: a phosphatidylglycerol + H2O = 1,2-diacylglycerol + glycerol 3-phosphate.


D-ribose 2,5-bisphosphate 2-phosphohydrolase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + D-ribofuranose 2,5-bisphosphate <=> hydrogenphosphate + D-ribofuranose 5-phosphate.


4-phytase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: myo-inositol hexakisphosphate + H2O = 1-myo-inositol 1,2,3,4,5-pentakisphosphate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 1D-myo-inositol 4,5-bisphosphate + H2O = 1D-myo-inositol 4-phosphate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 2-cis,6-trans,10-trans-geranylgeranyl diphosphate + H2O <=> (13E)-labda-7,13-dien-15-ol + diphosphoric acid.


inositol phosphorylceramide phospholipase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: inositol phosphorylceramide + H2O = C26-phytoceramide + phosphorylinositol.


Catalysis of the reaction: 1-(sn-glycero-3-phospho)-1D-myo-inositol + H2O = sn-glycerol 3-phosphate + myo-inositol + H+.


Catalysis of the reaction: inositol-1,3,4,5,6-pentakisphosphate + H2O = inositol-3,4,5,6-tetrakisphosphate + phosphate.


diphosphoric monoester hydrolase activity

Catalysis of the hydrolysis of a diphosphoester to give a diphosphate group and a free hydroxyl group.


JUN kinase phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: JUN kinase serine/threonine/tyrosine phosphate + H2O = JUN kinase serine/threonine/tyrosine + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 1-phosphatidyl-1D-myo-inositol 3,4-bisphosphate + H2O = 1-phosphatidyl-1D-myo-inositol phosphate + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: cyclic di-3',5'-guanylate + H2O = 5'-phosphoguanylyl(3'->5')guanosine + H+.


inositol phosphosphingolipid phospholipase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: inositol phosphosphingolipid + H2O = sphingolipid + phosphorylinositol.


Catalysis of the reaction: 1D-myo-inositol 3,4-bisphosphate + H2O = 1D-myo-inositol 3-phosphate + phosphate.


phosphatidylcholine phospholipase C activity

Catalysis of the reaction: a 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine + H2O = a 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycerol + H+ + phosphocholine.


fructose-1-phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: beta-D-fructofuranose 1-phosphate + H2O <=> beta-D-fructofuranose + hydrogenphosphate.


sucrose-phosphate phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: sucrose 6F-phosphate + H2O = sucrose + phosphate.


RNA polymerase II CTD heptapeptide repeat S7 phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: RNA polymerase II large subunit CTD heptapeptide repeat--phospho-L-serine (consensus YSPTSPS)(position 7) + H2O = RNA polymerase II large subunit + phosphate.


protein adenylylhydrolase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: adenylyl-protein+ H2O = adenylate + protein; mediates the removal of an adenylyl (adenosine 5'-monophosphate; AMP group) from specific residues of target proteins.


Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + an N-acylphosphatidylethanolamine = H+ + an N-acylethanolamine + a 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycerol 3-phosphate.


NMN phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: beta-nicotinamide D-ribonucleotide (NMN-) + H2O = beta-nicotinamide D-riboside (nicotinamide ribose, NmR) + phosphate.


phosphoric triester hydrolase activity

Catalysis of the hydrolysis of a phosphoric triester.


mannitol-1-phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: D-mannitol 1-phosphate + H2O = D-mannitol + 2 H+ + phosphate.


[hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase (NADPH)]-phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + [hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase (NADPH)] phosphate = phosphate + [hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase (NADPH)].


prenyl-diphosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: prenyl diphosphate + H2O = prenol + diphosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: dolichyl beta-D-mannosyl phosphate + H2O = dolichol-phosphate + mannose.


[pyruvate kinase]-phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: [pyruvate kinase] phosphate + H2O = [pyruvate kinase] + phosphate.


Catalysis of the hydrolysis of 3'-phosphotyrosyl groups formed as covalent intermediates (in DNA backbone breakage) between DNA topoisomerase I and DNA.


thiamine phosphate phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: thiamine phosphate + H2O = thiamine + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + 6-(D-glucose-1-phospho)-D-mannosylglycoprotein = D-mannosylglycoprotein + D-glucose-alpha-1-phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: glycerol 1,2-cyclic phosphate + H2O = glycerol 1-phosphate + H+.


Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + CMP-N-acylneuraminate = N-acylneuraminate + CMP.


neutral sphingomyelin phosphodiesterase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + sphingomyelin = ceramide + choline phosphate + H+ in a neutral environment.


Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + an ecdysteroid 22-phosphate = hydrogenphosphate + an ecdysteroid.


Catalysis of the reaction: L-galactose-1-phosphate + H2O = L-galactose + phosphate.


inositol hexakisphosphate 2-phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: myo-inositol hexakisphosphate + H2O = myo-inositol 1,3,4,5,6-pentakisphosphate + phosphate.


3',5'-nucleotide bisphosphate phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 3',5'-nucleoside bisphosphate + H20 = 5'-nucleoside monophosphate + phosphate.


GPI-mannose ethanolamine phosphate phosphodiesterase activity

A phosphoric diester hydrolase activity that removes the ethanolamine phosphate from mannose 2 of a GPI anchor.


5-phospho-alpha-D-ribose 1,2-cyclic phosphate 1-phosphohydrolase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 5-phosphonato-alpha-D-ribose cyclic-1,2-phosphate + H2O <=> D-ribofuranose 2,5-bisphosphate + H+.


7,8-dihydro-D-neopterin 2',3'-cyclic phosphate phosphodiesterase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 7,8-dihydro-D-neopterin 2',3'-cyclic phosphate + H2O = 7,8-dihydroneopterin 3'-phosphate + H+.


Catalysis of the reaction: D-myo-inositol 1,3,4-trisphosphate + H2O = myo-inositol 1,3-bisphosphate + phosphate.


L-phosphoserine phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: O-phospho-L-serine + H2O = L-serine + phosphate, on a free amino acid.


XMP 5'-nucleosidase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 5'XMP + H20 = phosphate + xanthosine.


Catalysis of the reaction: 1D-myo-inositol 4,5,6-trisphosphate + H2O = 1D-myo-inositol 4,6-bisphosphate + phosphate.


monoterpenyl-diphosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: monoterpenyl diphosphate + H2O = monoterpenol + diphosphate.


glycosylphosphatidylinositol phospholipase D activity

Catalysis of the reaction: glycoprotein phosphatidylinositol + H2O = phosphatidate + glycoprotein inositol.


L-threonine O-3-phosphate phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: O-phospho-L-threonine + H2O = L-threonine + hydrogenphosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 1-guanidino-1-deoxy-scyllo-inositol 4-phosphate + H2O = 1-guanidino-1-deoxy-scyllo-inositol + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: myo-inositol hexakisphosphate + H2O = myo-inositol pentakisphosphate (mixed isomers) + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 1D-myo-inositol 2,4,5-trisphosphate + H2O = 1D-myo-inositol 2,4-bisphosphate + phosphate.


alpha-ribazole phosphatase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: alpha-ribazole 5'-phosphate + H2O = alpha-ribazole + phosphate.


Catalysis of the reaction: 1-phosphatidyl-1D-myo-inositol 3,4-bisphosphate + H2O = 1-phosphatidyl-1D-myo-inositol 4-phosphate + phosphate.


3-phytase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: myo-inositol hexakisphosphate + H2O = D-myo-inositol 1,2,4,5,6-pentakisphosphate + phosphate.


positive regulation of autophagic cell death

biolink:BiologicalProcess biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:Occurrent biolink:OntologyClass biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of autophagic cell death.


iliolumbar vein

biolink:GrossAnatomicalStructure biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

The iliolumbar vein is the vena comitans of the iliolumbar artery. The obturator nerve crosses superficial to it. A single vein is found more commonly than a double vein. It drains vertebral segments four and five. It is closely related to the ascending lumbar vein. [WP,unvetted].


4-nitrophenol catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of 4-nitrophenol, a nitroaromatic compound which is used in the production of dyes, leather treatment agents, fungicides and as an intermediate in the production of the insecticide parathion.


Resectable Adenocarcinoma of Unknown Primary

biolink:Disease biolink:DiseaseOrPhenotypicFeature biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:ThingWithTaxon

An adenocarcinoma of unknown primary that is amenable to surgical resection.


Resectable Carcinoma of Unknown Primary

A carcinoma of unknown primary that is amenable to surgical resection.


Nipple Sensation Change or Loss

biolink:PhenotypicFeature biolink:DiseaseOrPhenotypicFeature biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:ThingWithTaxon

Excessive sensitivity or changes in sensitivity in the nipple(s).


gibberellin catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of gibberellin. Gibberellins are a class of highly modified terpenes that function as plant growth regulators.


secretory meningioma

A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of epithelial differentiation and numerous intracellular PAS positive bodies that are rich in glycogen.


Red cell adenylate kinase deficiency

An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation of the AK1 gene. It is associated with moderate to severe non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia and, in some cases, with intellectual disability and psychomotor impairment.


anemia due to erythrocyte enzyme disorder

Any form of anemia that results from the absence of, or the defective action of, any enzyme involved in erythropoiesis.


glycogen storage disease due to phosphoglycerate mutase deficiency

A rare, autosomal recessive, inherited disorder caused by mutation of the PGAM2 gene. It is characterized by non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia, exercise-induced cramping, myoglobinuria, and presence of tubular aggregates on muscle biopsy.


Deficiency of hexokinase (disorder)

A rare, autosomal recessive, inherited disorder caused by mutation of the HK1 gene. It is characterized by the early-onset of severe, non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia.


Glucose phosphate isomerase deficiency

A rare, autosomal recessive, inherited disorder caused by mutation of the GPI gene. It is characterized by chronic, non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia.


Deficiency of enolase

A rare, autosomal dominant, inherited disorder caused by mutation of the ENO1 gene. It is associated with spherocytic hemolytic anemia, exercise-induced myalgia and weakness.


triosephosphate isomerase deficiency

Triosephosphate isomerase (TPI) deficiency is a severe autosomal recessive inherited multisystem disorder of glycolytic metabolism characterized by hemolytic anemia and neurodegeneration.


hemolytic anemia due to diphosphoglycerate mutase deficiency

A rare, autosomal recessive, inherited disorder caused by mutation of the BPGM gene. It is characterized by hemolytic anemia and splenomegaly.


Uridine monophosphate hydrolase deficiency

An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation of the NT5C3A gene. It is the most frequent abnormality of red cell nucleotide metabolism, causing chronic, non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia. Most affected individuals have Mediterranean, Jewish, or African ancestry. Basophilic stippling and accumulation of pyrimidines within erythrocytes are hallmarks of this disorder.


positive regulation of mitotic nuclear envelope disassembly

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of mitotic nuclear envelope disassembly.


thiocarbamic ester

Any organonitrogen compound with formula RS-C(=X)NH2 where X = O (monothiocarbamic esters) or S (dithiocarbamic esters), or their N-substituted derivatives.


monothiocarbamic ester

A thiocarbamic ester formally derived from a monothiocarbamic acid.


4-chlorobenzaldehyde oxidase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 4-chlorobenzaldehyde + 2 H2O = 4-chlorobenzoate + 2 H+ + 2 e-.


composite hemangioendothelioma

An intermediate, locally aggressive and rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of spindle, plump, and epithelioid endothelial cells and cellular atypia.


Intermediate Vascular Neoplasm

A vascular neoplasm with borderline malignant potential.


retiform hemangioendothelioma

An intermediate, locally aggressive and rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of hobnail endothelial cells and formation of arborizing vascular channels.


kaposiform hemangioendothelioma

Kaposiform hemangioendothelioma is a very rare, aggressive, vascular tumor manifesting in the neonatal period or in infancy as cutaneous vascular tumors to large infiltrative lesions.


Intermediate (Locally Aggressive) Blood Vessel Neoplasm

A borderline blood vessel neoplasm that has locally aggressive behavior.


Pseudomyogenic (epithelioid sarcoma-like) hemangioendothelioma

An intermediate, rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm that more frequently affects young adult males and usually arises in the lower limbs.  In approximately half of the affected patients the tumor is painful and in two-thirds of the patients the tumor is multifocal.  Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of sheets and fascicles of spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nuclei.  Cytologic atypia is usually mild.  Approximately 60% of the patients develop local recurrences or additional tumors in the same anatomic region.


Intermediate (Rarely Metastasizing) Blood Vessel Neoplasm

A borderline blood vessel neoplasm that may metastasize on rare occasions.


Intermediate Blood Vessel Neoplasm

A borderline blood vessel neoplasm that can be locally aggressive, and may metastasize on rare occasions.


An intermediate, rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of lymphatic-like vascular channels and papillary endothelial proliferation.


Polymorphus Hemangioendothelioma

An intermediate, rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of a polymorphic cellular infiltrate.


mild ichthyosis vulgaris

An instance of ichthyosis vulgaris in which the disease presentation is mild in severity. Heterozygote FLG mutation carriers often have mild manifestations.


Elevated Expression

An indication that the expression of a gene, transcript or protein is higher than a previous value or a normal range of values.


TP53 Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of TP53 has been detected in a sample.


MiRNA 371-373 Overexpression

An indication that microRNAs found in the miRNA 371-373 cluster are overexpressed in a sample.


Fibroblast Growth Factor 1 Overexpression


BCL2 Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of BCL2 has been detected in a sample.


Presence of ERBB2 Overexpressing Disseminated Tumor Cells

An indication that single tumor cells or small clusters of tumor cells that are overexpressing ERBB2 are present in a tissue sample.


Elevated ALCAM

A finding indicating elevated concentrations of ALCAM in a sample.


BCL6 Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of BCL6 has been detected in a sample.


THBS1 Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of THBS1 has been detected in a sample.


HIF1A Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of HIF1A has been detected in a sample.


HRAS Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of HRAS has been detected in a sample.


Transforming Growth Factor-Beta Overexpression


Elevated MET Protein Expression

An indication that elevated concentrations of MET protein were found in a sample.


MET Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of MET has been detected in a sample.


VEGF Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of a member of the VEGF family has been detected in a sample.


AXL Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of AXL has been detected in a sample.


NTRK1 Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of NTRK1 has been detected in a sample.


FGF23 Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of FGF23 has been detected in a sample.


Fibroblast Growth Factor 2 Overexpression


EZHIP Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of EZHIP has been detected in a sample.


GRPR Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of GRPR has been detected in a sample.


ERBB2 Overexpression

An indication that overexpression of ERBB2 has been detected in a sample.


KIT Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of KIT has been detected in a sample.


NECTIN4 Overexpression Positive

An indication that overexpression of NECTIN4 has been detected in a sample.


Catalysis of the reaction: 3alpha,7alpha,12alpha-trihydroxy-5beta-cholanoyl-CoA + propanoyl-CoA = CoA + 3alpha,7alpha,12alpha-trihydroxy-24-oxo-5beta-cholestanoyl-CoA.


Catalysis of the reaction: 2-methyl-3-oxohexanoyl-CoA + CoA = propanoyl-CoA + butyryl-CoA.


Catalysis of the reaction: myristoyl-CoA + acetyl-CoA = 3-oxopalmitoyl-CoA + CoA.


Catalysis of the reaction: acetyl-CoA + deacetylcephalosporin C = cephalosporin C + CoA.


glycine C-acetyltransferase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: acetyl-CoA + glycine = L-2-amino-3-oxobutanoate + CoA.


formate C-acetyltransferase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: acetyl-CoA + formate = CoA + pyruvate.


Hemolymphangioma

A hemorrhagic lymphatic lesion characterized by the presence of dilated lymphatic spaces, extravasation of red blood cells, hemosiderin deposition, and fibrosis.


chilblain lupus 1

Any chilblain lupus in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the TREX1 gene.


chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus

Chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus (CCLE) is a form of cutaneous lupus erythematosus (CLE) that includes five different forms: discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE), chilblain lupus, hypertrophic or verrucous lupus erythematosus, lupus erythematosus tumidus, and lupus erythematosus panniculitis.


hypertrophic or verrucous lupus erythematosus


familial chilblain lupus

An instance of Chilblain lupus that is caused by an inherited modification of the individual's genome.


lupus erythematosus panniculitis

A type of lupus erythematosus characterized by deep dermal or subcutaneous nodules, most often on the head, face, or upper arms. It is generally chronic and occurs most often in women between the ages of 20 and 45.


chilblain lupus 2

Any chilblain lupus in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the SAMHD1 gene.


chilblain lupus

A rare, chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus disease characterized by red or violaceous, initially pruritic (evolving to painful) papules and plaques located on acral areas (especially dorsal aspects of fingers and toes, while the nose and ear involvement is uncommon), exacerbated by cold and damp conditions, with fissuring and ulceration occasionally observed. Coexistence of discoid lupus erythematosus lesions elsewhere on the body and occasional progression to systemic lupus erythematosus may be associated. Histological examination and direct immunofluorescence studies reveal nonspecific inflammatory lupus erythematosus changes while results of cryoglobulin and cold agglutinin studies are negative.


oxidized pyrimidine DNA binding

Binding to a DNA region containing an oxidized pyrimidine residue.


8-hydroxy-2'-deoxyguanosine DNA binding

Binding to 8-hydroxy-2'-deoxyguanosine an oxidized purine residue found in damaged DNA.


Catalysis of the reaction: S-adenosyl-L-methionine + dTDP-3-N-methylamino-4-oxo-2,3,6-trideoxy-alpha-D-glucose <=> S-adenosyl-L-homocysteine + dTDP-3-N,N-dimethylamino-4-oxo-2,3,6-trideoxy-alpha-D-glucose + H+.


Spiral Tube of Schchowa

biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

The portion of the renal tubule located inside the renal cortex between the proximal convoluted tubule and the loop of Henle.


nuclear inner membrane organization

A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of the nuclear inner membrane.


nuclear membrane fusion

The joining of 2 or more lipid bilayer membranes that surround the nucleus.


nuclear outer membrane organization

A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of the nuclear outer membrane.


sperm nuclear envelope removal

Removal of the sperm nuclear envelope, allowing entry of maternal factors into the sperm nucleus.


nuclear membrane fusion involved in karyogamy

The joining of 2 or more lipid bilayer membranes that surround the nucleus during the creation of a single nucleus from multiple nuclei.


Levamlodipine

The (4S)-enantiomer of amlodipine.


heterochromatin island

biolink:CellularComponent biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

A region of facultative heterochromatin formed dynamically at specific loci in response to environmental signals, independently of RNAi.


respiratory system lymphatic vessel smooth muscle

A lymphatic vessel smooth muscle that is part of a respiratory system [Automatically generated definition].


lymphatic vessel smooth muscle

A portion of smooth muscle tissue that is part of a lymphatic vessel [Automatically generated definition].


inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery

The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery or from its first intestinal branch, opposite the upper border of the inferior part of the duodenum. It courses to the right between the head of the pancreas and duodenum, and then ascends to anastomose with the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery. It distributes branches to the head of the pancreas and to the descending and inferior parts of the duodenum. [WP,unvetted].


Angelucci syndrome

Atopic conjunctivitis that is of relatively short duration and that has a rapid onset.


acute conjunctivitis

Acute inflammation of the conjunctiva.


acute contagious conjunctivitis

Acute inflammation of the conjunctiva characterized by pink or red color in the eyes.


extracellular matrix organization in marginal zone involved in cerebral cortex radial glia guided migration

The process that leads to the deposition of extracellular matrix signals in the marginal zone of the developing cerebral cortex. This extracellular matrix controls the movement of migrating cells. In mammals, the matrix is modified by Cajal-Retzius cells.


(Z,E)-alpha- farnesene synthase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 2-trans,6-trans-farnesyl diphosphate = (Z,E)-alpha-farnesene + diphosphoric acid.


wing and notum subfield formation

The regionalization process that subdivides the wing imaginal disc into the wing and notum (body wall) subfields, thus determining whether cells ultimately differentiate wing or notum-specific structures.


Pancreatic Serous Adenoma

A benign, non-metastasizing, usually cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the exocrine pancreas.  It is composed of glycogen-rich epithelial cells which produce a watery fluid.  Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss.


Pancreatic Macrocystic Serous Cystadenoma

A benign, non-metastasizing epithelial neoplasm arising from the exocrine pancreas.  It is characterized by the presence of a few large cysts and is composed of glycogen-rich epithelial cells which produce a watery fluid.


Pancreatic Solid Serous Adenoma

A well-circumscribed serous adenoma that is solid and lacks cystic changes.


Von Hippel Lindau Syndrome-Associated Pancreatic Serous Adenoma

A serous adenoma that develops in a patient with Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome.  Usually there are multiple serous adenomas present of the macrocystic type.


Locally Advanced Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes.


Metastatic Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor which has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.


Advanced Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor

A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


mitochondrial complex 1 deficiency, nuclear type 16


smooth muscle tissue layer of ejaculatory duct

A smooth muscle tissue that is part of a ejaculatory duct.


cellular response to N-acetyl-D-glucosamine

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of an N-acetyl-D-glucosamine stimulus.


cellular response to chondroitin 6'-sulfate

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a chondroitin 6'-sulfate stimulus.


metanephric glomerular endothelium development

The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the metanephric glomerular endothelium over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The metanephric glomerular endothelium is an epithelial tissue that covers the internal surfaces of the glomerulus of the metanephros.


mesonephric glomerular epithelium development

The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the mesonephric glomerular epithelium over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The mesonephric glomerular epithelium is an epithelial tissue that covers the outer surfaces of the glomerulus in the mesonephros. The mesonephric glomerular epithelium consists of both parietal and visceral epithelium. Mesonephric glomerular parietal epithelial cells are specialized epithelial cells that form tight junctions as a barrier to protein transport. A mesonephric glomerular visceral epithelial cell is a specialized epithelial cell that contains 'feet' that interdigitate with the 'feet' of other glomerular epithelial cells in the mesonephros.


Vaginal Blue Nevus

A neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the proliferation of subepithelial benign dendritic melanocytes.


humeroradial joint

A hinge joint between the head of the radius and the capitulum of the humerus.


diiodophenylpyruvate reductase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 3-(3,5-diiodo-4-hydroxyphenyl)lactate + NAD+ = 3-(3,5-diiodo-4-hydroxyphenyl)pyruvate + H+ + NADH.


Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2B

Autosomal dominant Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2B (CMT2B) is a severe form of axonal Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, a peripheral sensorimotor neuropathy. CMT2B onset, in the 2nd or 3rd decade, is characterized by ulcerations and infections of feet. Symmetric and distal weakness develops mostly in the legs together with a severe symmetric distal sensory loss, tendon reflexes are only reduced at ankles and foot deformities, including pes cavus or planus and hammer toes, appear in childhood.


PIGA Deficiency

An X-linked recessive inherited disorder caused by loss of function mutations in the PIGA gene. It is characterized by deficient GPI-anchor synthesis. Patients may develop somatic paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) or multiple congenital anomalies-hypotonia-seizures syndrome 2 (MCAHS2; early infantile epileptic encephalopathy 20; EIEE20).


nystagmus 3, congenital, autosomal dominant


Chest Pain Along Right Upper Sternal Border

The location of the chest pain is along the right upper border of the sternum.


orbitosphenoid-lateral ethmoid joint

Joint that articulates the orbitosphenoid cartilage or bone and lateral ethmoid cartilage or bone. Orbitosphenoid-lateral ethmoid joint is paired.


spondylo-ocular syndrome

Spondylo-ocular syndrome is a very rare association of spinal and ocular manifestations that is characterized by dense cataracts, and retinal detachment along with generalized osteoporosis and platyspondyly. Mild craniofacial dysphormism has been reported including short neck, large head and prominent eyebrows.


neurological muscular channelopathy due to a genetic chloride channel defect


Intraoperative skin injury

Damage to the skin during a surgical procedure.


Injury of integument

Damage to the skin.


Frostbite

An injury to the skin and/or its underlying tissues that results from exposure of the affected area to extreme cold.


Skin Bruise

Extravasation of blood into the subcutaneous space.


Traumatic subcutaneous emphysema

The infiltration of air into the skin tissue secondary to traumatic tissue disruption.


polyamino carboxylic acid

An amino acid containing one or more nitrogen atoms connected through carbon atoms to one or more carboxy groups.


Acute Thymic Involution

The sudden shrinking and/or complete disappearance of the thymus gland; this often happens as a response to a physiologic stressor, such as infection or malnutrition.


regulation of myofibril number

Any process that modulates the number of myofibrils. A myofibril is the contractile element of skeletal and cardiac muscle. It is a long, highly organized bundle of actin, myosin, and other proteins that contracts by a sliding filament mechanism.


geissoschizine dehydrogenase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: geissoschizine + NADP+ = 4,21-dehydrogeissoschizine + H+ + NADPH.


juvenile open angle glaucoma

Juvenile glaucoma (JG) is a rare autosomal dominant open angle glaucoma, characterized by early onset, severe elevation of intra ocular pressure of rapid progression, leading to optic nerve excavation and, when untreated, substantial visual impairment.


glaucoma 1, open angle, O

Any open-angle glaucoma in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the NTF4 gene.


low tension glaucoma

A form of glaucoma in which chronic optic nerve damage and loss of vision normally attributable to buildup of intraocular pressure occurs despite prevailing conditions of normal intraocular pressure.


glaucoma 1, open angle, A

Any juvenile glaucoma in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the MYOC gene.


persistent polyclonal B-cell lymphocytosis

Persistent polyclonal B-cell lymphocytosis (PPBL) is a rare, generally benign, lymphoproliferative hematological disease characterized by: chronic, stable, persistent, polyclonal lymphocytosis of memory B-cell origin, the presence of binucleated lymphocytes in the peripheral blood, and a polyclonal increase in serum immunoglobulin M (IgM). Patients are most frequently asymptomatic or may present with mild splenomegaly.


(+)-Ethotoin

The (S)-enantiomer of ethotoin.


(-)-Ethotoin

The (R)-enantiomer of ethotoin.


Hydantoin

An imidazolidinone with oxo groups at position 2 and 4.


imidazolidinone

An imidazolidine containing one or more oxo groups.


platelet-derived growth factor complex

A protein complex consisting of two chains of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) subunits. PDGF dimers bind to PDGF receptors in the plasma membrane and induce receptor dimerization and activation. PDGFs are involved in a wide variety of signaling processes. PDGFs are found in all vertebrates where at least 2 different chains (A and B) exist. In human (and other mammals), four types of PDGF chains (A, B, C, and D) are known which form five different dimers (AA, AB, BB, CC and DD).


VEGF-A complex

A homodimeric, extracellular protein complex containing two VEGF-A monomers. Binds to and activates a receptor tyrosine kinase.


phosphatidylcholine biosynthesis from choline and CDP-diacylglycerol

The phosphatidylcholine biosynthetic process that involves a one-step direct condensation of choline with CDP-diacylglycerol to form phosphatidylcholine.


Multinodular Adrenal Hyperplasia

A subtype of adrenal hyperplasia, based on histopathologic features, in which there are multiple nodules.


cellular response to red light

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a red light stimulus. Red light is electromagnetic radiation of wavelength of 580-700nm. An example of this response is seen at the beginning of many plant species developmental stages. These include germination, and the point when cotyledon expansion is triggered. In certain species these processes take place in response to absorption of red light by the pigment molecule phytochrome, but the signal can be reversed by exposure to far red light. During the initial phase the phytochrome molecule is only present in the red light absorbing form, but on absorption of red light it changes to a far red light absorbing form, triggering progress through development. An immediate short period of exposure to far red light entirely returns the pigment to its initial state and prevents triggering of the developmental process. A thirty minute break between red and subsequent far red light exposure renders the red light effect irreversible, and development then occurs regardless of whether far red light exposure subsequently occurs.


response to red light

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a red light stimulus. Red light is electromagnetic radiation of wavelength of 580-700nm. An example of this response is seen at the beginning of many plant species developmental stages. These include germination, and the point when cotyledon expansion is triggered. In certain species these processes take place in response to absorption of red light by the pigment molecule phytochrome, but the signal can be reversed by exposure to far red light. During the initial phase the phytochrome molecule is only present in the red light absorbing form, but on absorption of red light it changes to a far red light absorbing form, triggering progress through development. An immediate short period of exposure to far red light entirely returns the pigment to its initial state and prevents triggering of the developmental process. A thirty minute break between red and subsequent far red light exposure renders the red light effect irreversible, and development then occurs regardless of whether far red light exposure subsequently occurs.


response to photoperiod, red light

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a red light photoperiod stimulus. Red light is electromagnetic radiation of wavelength of 580-700nm.


response to very low fluence red light stimulus

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a very low fluence red light stimulus. Red light is electromagnetic radiation of wavelength of 580-700nm. Very low fluence red light is defined in this case as short pulses of red light followed by darkness, providing light levels of less than 0.001 mmol/m2/sec.


red light signaling pathway

biolink:Pathway biolink:BiologicalProcess biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:NamedThing biolink:OntologyClass biolink:Occurrent biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

The series of molecular signals initiated upon sensing of red light by a photoreceptor molecule. Red light is electromagnetic radiation of wavelength of 580-700nm. An example of this response is seen at the beginning of many plant species developmental stages. These include germination, and the point when cotyledon expansion is triggered. In certain species these processes take place in response to absorption of red light by the pigment molecule phytochrome, but the signal can be reversed by exposure to far red light. During the initial phase the phytochrome molecule is only present in the red light absorbing form, but on absorption of red light it changes to a far red light absorbing form, triggering progress through development. An immediate short period of exposure to far red light entirely returns the pigment to its initial state and prevents triggering of the developmental process. A thirty minute break between red and subsequent far red light exposure renders the red light effect irreversible, and development then occurs regardless of whether far red light exposure subsequently occurs.


response to low fluence red light stimulus

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a low fluence red light stimulus. Red light is electromagnetic radiation of wavelength of 580-700nm. Low fluence red light is defined in this case as short pulses of red light followed by darkness, providing a light level of 0.001-0.1 mmol/m2/sec.


Catalysis of the reaction: 2,6-dimethyl-5-methylene-3-oxo-heptanoyl-CoA + CoASH = 3-isopropylbut-3-enoyl-CoA + propanoyl-CoA.


ovarian lymphoma

A lymphoma that affects the ovary. Lymphomatous involvement of the ovary is rare and in approximately half of the cases both ovaries are affected.


hydrophthalmos

Abnormal enlargement of the eye


Unresectable Digestive System Mixed Adenoneuroendocrine Carcinoma

Digestive system mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection.


hydroxynitrilase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: a hydroxynitrile = cyanide + an aldehyde or ketone.


aliphatic (S)-hydroxynitrile lyase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: an aliphatic (S)-hydroxynitrile = an aliphatic aldehyde or ketone + cyanide.


aromatic (S)-hydroxynitrile lyase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: an aromatic (S)-hydroxynitrile = an aromatic aldehyde + cyanide.


hydroxymandelonitrile lyase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: 4-hydroxymandelonitrile = 4-hydroxybenzaldehyde + hydrocyanate.


aliphatic (R)-hydroxynitrile lyase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: an aliphatic (R)-hydroxynitrile = an aliphatic aldehyde or ketone + hydrogen cyanide.


positive regulation of preblastoderm mitotic cell cycle

Any process that activates or increases the rate or extent of progression through the preblastoderm mitotic cell cycle.


juvenile polymyositis

An idiopathic inflammatory myopathy of childhood resulting in muscle weakness.


folate:monoatomic anion antiporter activity

Enables the transfer of a solute or solutes from one side of a membrane to the other according to the reaction: Folate derivative (out) + anion (in) = folate derivative (in) + anion (out). The Reduced Folate Carrier (RCF(SLC19A1) acts by an antiport mechanism. RCF carries several folate derivatives: MTX, PMX, ratitrexed, pralatrexate, 5-methyl THF, and 5-formyl THF.


octamethylcyclotetrasiloxane catabolic process to dimethylsilanediol

The anaerobic chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of octamethylcyclotetrasiloxane into dimethylsilanediol. The former is a tetramer of the latter.


anaerobic organosilicon metabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways involving organosilicons, organic compounds that contain silicon, in the absence of oxygen.


protein localization to nuclear inner membrane

A process in which a protein is transported to, or maintained in, a location within the nuclear inner membrane.


protein-glutamic acid ligase activity, elongating

Catalytic reaction :(L-glutamyl)n-L-gamma-glutamyl-L-glutamyl-[protein] + ATP + L-glutamate = (L-glutamyl)n+1-L-gamma-glutamyl-L-glutamyl-[protein] + ADP + H(+) + phosphate.


protein-glutamic acid ligase activity, initiating

Catalytic reaction: ATP + L-glutamate + L-glutamyl-[protein] = ADP + H(+) + L-gamma-glutamyl-L-glutamyl-[protein] + phosphate.


ribosomal protein S6 glutamate-glutamate ligase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: L-glutamate + ATP + a [protein] C-terminal L-glutamate = ADP + hydrogenphosphate + H+ + a [protein] with C-terminal alpha-L-glutamate-alpha-L-glutamate.


ribosomal S6-glutamic acid ligase activity

Catalysis of the posttranslational transfer of one or more glutamic acid residues to the C-terminus of ribosomal protein S6.


Advanced Pancreatic Neuroendocrine Tumor

A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor metastatic

A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the islet cells of the pancreas and has spread to another anatomic site.


Locally Advanced Pancreatic Neuroendocrine Tumor

A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes.


ABC-type heme transporter activity

Catalysis of the reaction: ATP + H2O + heme(in) = ADP + phosphate + heme(out).


puerperal infection

An infection occurring in puerperium, the period of 6-8 weeks after giving birth.


postpartum psychosis

Postpartum psychosis is a rare psychiatric emergency in which symptoms of high mood and racing thoughts (mania), depression, severe confusion, loss of inhibition, paranoia, hallucinations and delusions set in, beginning suddenly in the first two weeks after childbirth. The symptoms vary and can change quickly.


serous cystadenofibroma

A benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by serous epithelial cells in a fibrotic stroma. Most commonly the primary site is the ovary, but serous cystadenofibromas can occur in the pancreas as well.


uterine corpus apoplectic leiomyoma

A morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by zones of hemorrhagic infarction surrounded by hypercellular areas. It usually develops in women of childbearing years, particularly those that are pregnant, post-partum, or taking oral contraceptives.


ovarian clear cell adenofibroma

An uncommon benign neoplasm of glandular epithelium characterized by the presence of clear or hobnail cells within a dense fibrous stroma.


fibroma of prostate

A fibroma that involves the prostate gland.


uterine corpus cellular leiomyoma

A morphologic variant of leiomyoma arising from the uterine corpus. It is characterized by a dense cellular infiltrate composed of spindle or round cells with scant cytoplasm and a less obvious interlacing fascicle pattern.


uterine corpus bizarre leiomyoma

A morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by significant cytologic atypia. The atypical cells are large with pleomophic hyperchromatic nuclei.


uterine corpus dissecting leiomyoma

A rare morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma. Macroscopically, it is characterized by large, fungating, and multinodular neoplasm masses arising from the uterine corpus, and extending into the broad ligament or the peritoneal cavity. Microscopically, it shows neoplastic smooth muscle cells infiltrating the myometrium. The neoplastic cells are arranged in a micronodular pattern. Hydropic changes and increased vascularity are also present.


uterine corpus adenofibroma

A usually polypoid, benign neoplasm that arises from the endometrial cavity. It is characterized by the presence of a mesenchymal core component and an epithelial component that forms a lining on the mesenchymal core.


testicular fibroma

A benign neoplasm that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of fusiform cells and collagenization.


ovarian clear cell cystadenofibroma

A benign neoplasm of glandular epithelium characterized by the presence of clear or hobnail cells within a dense fibrous stroma and cystic structures.


cystadenofibroma

A benign or borderline neoplasm that arises from the ovaries and the fallopian tubes. It is characterized by the presence of cystic glandular structures and fibrous tissue.


adenofibroma

A benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of connective tissue stroma and epithelial structures. It occurs in the ovary, fallopian tube, uterine corpus, and cervix. Cases of adenofibroma of the ovary with low grade malignant potential have also been reported.


clear cell adenofibroma

A benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of glandular structures which contain clear cells and a fibrotic stroma.


ovarian endometrioid cystadenofibroma

A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by endometrial-type well-differentiated cells in a fibrotic stroma.


uterine corpus diffuse leiomyomatosis

An unusual condition characterized by the presence of numerous small benign smooth muscle neoplasms located throughout the body of the uterus.


rete ovarii cystadenofibroma

An exceptionally rare cystadenofibroma that arises from the rete ovarii.


ovarian serous adenofibroma

A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of glands with serous epithelial cells in a fibrotic stroma.


uterine corpus lipoleiomyoma

A rare morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by the presence of scattered islands of mature adipocytes within the smooth muscle neoplasm.


serous adenofibroma

A benign adenofibroma characterized by the presence of serous secretory cells and minute cystic spaces filled with watery fluid. A representative example is the ovarian serous adenofibroma. Cases with epithelial atypia described in the ovary lacking stromal invasion are designated as borderline serous adenofibromas and have a low grade malignant potential.


papillary adenofibroma

A biphasic polypoid neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillary projections that are lined by epithelial cells and fibrotic stroma.


tendon sheath fibroma

A small, slow growing, benign neoplasm arising from the tendon sheaths. The tumor is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation.


fallopian tube serous adenofibroma

A rare, benign, asymptomatic neoplasm that arises from the fallopian tube. The majority of cases are incidental findings during operation for an unrelated gynecologic disorder. The tumors are round and solitary and contain connective tissue and papillary or tubular structures lined by serous-type epithelium.


uterine corpus myxoid leiomyoma

A morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by extensive myxoid degeneration of the neoplasm connective tissue stroma.


uterine corpus epithelioid leiomyoma

A morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by the presence of round or polygonal epithelioid smooth muscle cells forming clusters.


clear cell cystadenofibroma

A benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of cystic glandular and fibrous tissues and clear cells.


calcified aponeurotic fibroma

A rare slow-growing benign neoplasm arising from the soft tissues in children. It is a poorly circumscribed tumor characterized by the presence of chondrocyte-like cells, nodular calcification, nuclear palisading, and in some cases osteoclastic giant cells.


ovarian serous cystadenofibroma

A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by serous epithelial cells in a fibrotic stroma.


fallopian tube cystadenofibroma

A rare, benign, asymptomatic neoplasm that arises from the fallopian tube. The tumors are round and solitary and contain connective tissue and cystic structures lined by serous-type epithelium. The majority of cases are incidental findings during operation for an unrelated gynecologic disorder.


spastic paraplegia, intellectual disability, nystagmus, and obesity;


deactivation of mitotic spindle assembly checkpoint

A positive regulation of the mitotic metaphase/anaphase transition that results from deactivation of the mitotic spindle assembly checkpoint.


positive regulation of mitotic sister chromatid segregation

Any process that starts or increases the frequency, rate or extent of sister chromatid segregation during mitosis.


positive regulation of mitotic spindle elongation

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of mitotic spindle elongation.


Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of negative regulation of mitotic spindle assembly checkpoint signaling.


positive regulation of mitotic spindle elongation (spindle phase three)

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the cell cycle process in which the distance is lengthened between poles of the mitotic spindle during mitotic anaphase B (spindle phase three).


negative regulation of chronic inflammatory response to antigenic stimulus

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate, or extent of a chronic inflammatory response to an antigenic stimulus.


carotenoid isomerase activity

Catalysis of the isomerization of poly-cis-carotenoids to all-trans-carotenoids.


urethral gland

Any of the numerous small mucous-secreting glands located in the wall of the male or female urethra that help protect the epithelium from the corrosive urine.


female urethral gland

An urethral gland that is part of a female urethra.


minor vestibular gland

Small mucous glands opening upon the vestibular mucous membrane between the urethral and the vaginal orifice.


paraparetic variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome

Paraparetic variant of Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rare variant of Guillain-Barré syndrome characterized by isolated leg weakness, areflexia and radicular leg pain that may simulate a cauda equina or spinal cord syndrome. The arms, ocular, facial, and oropharyngeal muscles are spared, and sphincteric function is normal.


olfactory organ

An organ that houses olfactory neurons and is responsible for the sense of smell. Examples include the vertebrate nose and the Drosophila dorsal organ.


osphradium

The osphradium is the olfactory organ in certain molluscs, linked with the respiration organ. The main function of this is to test incoming water for silt and other possible food particles. It is used by all members of the Genus Conus.


chronic dacryocystitis

Chronic form of dacryocystitis.


Recurrent Prostate Acinar Adenocarcinoma

The reemergence of prostate acinar adenocarcinoma after a period of remission.


Prostate cancer recurrent

Prostate carcinoma reemerging after a period of remission.


Adenocarcinoma of the prostate recurrent

The reemergence of prostate adenocarcinoma after a period of remission.


Biochemically Recurrent Prostate Carcinoma

Increasing prostate-specific antigen (PSA) following prostatectomy or radiation therapy in a patient with a history of localized prostate carcinoma. Signs of metastasis are absent using the currently available scanning technology.


uredinium development

The process that leads to the formation of a uredinium, a reddish, pustule-like structure formed by a rust fungus and consisting of uredospores.


ocellus pigment metabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways involving ocellus pigments, any general or particular coloring matter in living organisms, found or utilized in the ocellus, a minute simple eye found in many invertebrates.


ommochrome catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of ommochromes, any of a large group of natural polycyclic pigments commonly found in the Arthropoda, particularly in the ommatidia of the compound eye.


ocellus pigment catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of ocellus pigments, any general or particular coloring matter in living organisms, found or utilized in the ocellus, a minute simple eye found in many invertebrates.


ommochrome biosynthetic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of ommochromes, any of a large group of natural polycyclic pigments commonly found in the Arthropoda, particularly in the ommatidia of the compound eye.


ocellus pigment biosynthetic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of ocellus pigments, general or particular coloring matter in living organisms, found or utilized in the ocellus, a minute simple eye found in many invertebrates.


ommochrome metabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways involving ommochromes, any of a large group of natural polycyclic pigments commonly found in the Arthropoda, particularly in the ommatidia of the compound eye.


developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 77


multiple congenital anomalies-hypotonia-seizures syndrome 3

A rare congenital disorder of glycosylation characterized by neonatal hypotonia, global development delay, developmental regress and severe to profound intellectual disability, infantile onset seizures that are initially associated with febrile episodes with subsequent transition to unprovoked seizures, impaired vision with esotropia and nystagmus, progressive cerebral and cerebellar atrophy, skeletal abnormalities (including brachycephaly, scoliosis, slender long bones, delayed bone age, pectus excavatum and osteopenia), inverted nipples and dysmorphic features including high and narrow forehead, frontal bossing, short nose, depressed nasal bridge, anteverted nares, high palate and wide open mouth consistent with facial hypotonia. Other features may include cardiac abnormalities (such as patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defects), urogenital abnormalities (such as nephrocalcinosis, urolithiasis), and low plasma concentration of alkaline phosphatase.


multiple congenital anomalies-hypotonia-seizures syndrome 2

Any multiple congenital anomalies/dysmorphic syndrome-intellectual disability in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the PIGA gene.


negative regulation of spore-bearing organ development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of spore-bearing organ development, a process in which hyphae grow into special aggregates called fruiting bodies that produce new spores.


negative regulation of telium development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of telium development, a process that leads to the formation of a teliospore-bearing sorus of the rust fungi.


negative regulation of aecium development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of aecium development, a process in which a cuplike structure containing chains of aeciospores is formed.


negative regulation of sporocarp development involved in sexual reproduction

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of sporocarp development involved in sexual reproduction.


negative regulation of oogonium development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of oogonium development, a process that leads to the formation of a female gametangium of oomycetes, containing one or more gametes.


negative regulation of sporangium development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of sporangium development, a process that leads to the formation of sporangium, a single-celled or many-celled structure in which spores are produced, as in fungi, algae, mosses, and ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms.


negative regulation of conidiophore development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of conidiophore development, a process that leads to the formation of a conidiophore. The conidiophore is a specialized hypha that extends aerially from the growth substrate and bears conidia, or asexual spores.


negative regulation of oomycete sporangium development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of oomycete sporangium development, a process that leads to the formation of oomycete sporangium, a single-celled or many-celled structure that germinates directly to form an infection hypha or differentiate, through specialized cleavage vesicles, into between 10 and 30 zoospores, which is laterally flagellated.


negative regulation of cleistothecium development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of cleistothecium development, a process that leads to the formation of a cleistothecium. The cleistothecium is a closed sexual fruiting body that contains ascospores in linear asci, characteristic of some filamentous Ascomycete fungi such as members of the genera Aspergillus and Emericella.


negative regulation of basidium development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of basidium development, a process that leads to the formation of basidium, a small, specialized club-shaped structure typically bearing four basidiospores at the tips of minute projections. The basidium is unique to basidiomycetes and distinguishes them from other kinds of fungi.


negative regulation of zygosporangium development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of zygosporangium development, a process in which a fruiting body called zygosporangium is formed.


negative regulation of ascus development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of ascus development, a saclike structure produced by fungi of the phylum Ascomycota (sac fungi) in which sexually produced spores (ascospores), usually four or eight in number, are formed.


negative regulation of sporangium germination

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of sporangium germination.


negative regulation of phialide development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of phialide development, a process that leads to the formation of phialides. Phialides are specialized cells that bud from the ends of metulae on the conidiophore tip.


negative regulation of uredinium development

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of uredinium development, a process that leads to the formation of a reddish, pustule-like structure formed by a rust fungus and consisting of uredospores.


cyclin D2-CDK6 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin D2 and cyclin-dependent kinase 6 (CDK6). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


cyclin D3-CDK4 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin D3 and cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


cyclin B3-CDK2 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin B3 and cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


transforming growth factor beta ligand-receptor complex

A protein complex that is formed by the association of a TGF-beta dimeric ligand with 2 molecules of each receptor molecule, TGF-beta type I receptor and TGF-beta type II receptor. The receptor molecules may form homo- or heterodimers but only once bound by the ligand.


P-TEFb complex

A dimeric positive transcription elongation factor complex b that comprises a cyclin-dependent kinase containing the catalytic subunit, Cdk9, and a regulatory subunit, cyclin T.


Dbf4-dependent protein kinase complex

A heterodimeric protein complex required for the activation of DNA replication origins; comprises a catalytic subunit and a regulatory subunit (in Saccharomyces, Cdc7p and Dbf4p, respectively); complexes identified in other species generally contain proteins related to the Saccharomyces proteins.


Gin4 complex

A protein complex involved in septin ring formation during mitosis. In Saccharomyces cerevisiae it consists of BNI5, CDC3, CDC10, CDC11, CDC12, GIN4, NAP1 and SHS1. At least 2 GIN4 molecules are involved.


protein kinase CK2 complex

A protein complex that possesses protein serine/threonine kinase activity, and contains two catalytic alpha subunits and two regulatory beta subunits. Protein kinase CK2 complexes are found in nearly every subcellular compartment, and can phosphorylate many protein substrates in addition to casein.


DAPK1-calmodulin complex

A serine/threonine protein kinase complex involved in cell survival, apoptosis and autophagic cell death pathways. DAPK1 is activated by the dephosphorylation of a n-terminal serine and calcium-calmodulin binding.


cyclin D1-CDK6 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin D1 and cyclin-dependent kinase 6 (CDK6). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


Ire1 complex

A type-I transmembrane protein complex located in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) consisting of an IRE1-IRE1 dimer, which forms in response to the accumulation of unfolded protein in the ER. The dimeric complex has endoribonuclease (RNase) activity and evokes the unfolded protein response (UPR) by cleaving an intron of a mRNA coding for the transcription factor HAC1 in yeast or XBP1 in mammals; the complex cleaves a single phosphodiester bond in each of two RNA hairpins (with non-specific base paired stems and loops of consensus sequence CNCNNGN, where N is any base) to remove an intervening intron from the target transcript.


cyclin A1-CDK2 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin A1 and cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


MPF complex

A complex consisting of a Cdc2-class (also known as Cdc28) cyclin-dependent kinase and an M-phase cyclin such as S. pombe Cdc13. The MPF complex phosphorylates and activates the anaphase promoting complex (APC).


cyclin E2-CDK2 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin E2 and cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


cyclin A1-CDK1 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin A1 and cyclin-dependent kinase 1 (CDK1). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


DNA-dependent protein kinase complex

A protein complex that is involved in the repair of DNA double-strand breaks and, in mammals, V(D)J recombination events. It consists of the DNA-dependent protein kinase catalytic subunit (DNA-PKcs) and the DNA end-binding heterodimer Ku.


PAR polarity complex

A protein kinase complex that is required for the establishment of a cell polarity axis during the cell division cycle. Binds directly to activated CDC42 GTPase and is required for orchestrating a cellular gradient of CDC42. In S. cerevisiae components are: BEM1, CDC24 and CLA4; from worms to vertebrates it contains a PAR6 protein, PAR3 protein and an atypical PKC.


CTDK-1 complex

A positive transcription elongation factor complex that comprises the CDK kinase CTK1 (in budding yeast), Lsk1 (in fission yeast) (corresponding to the Panther PTHR24056:SF39 family), a cyclin and an additional gamma subunit (corresponding to the InterPRO entry IPR024638).


cyclin A2-CDK2 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin A2 and cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


CKM complex

Cyclin-dependent kinase complex which reversibly associates with the Mediator complex. In Saccharomyces cerevisiae it consists of SSN2, SSN3, SSN8 and SRB8.


cyclin B1-CDK1 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin B1 and cyclin-dependent kinase 1 (CDK1). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


cyclin D1-CDK4 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin D1 and cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


Pho85-Pho80 CDK-cyclin complex

A cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) complex that contains a kinase subunit and a regulatory cyclin subunit. An example of this complex in budding yeast S. cerevisiae consists of the Pho85 kinase and the Pho80 cyclin.


cyclin D3-CDK6 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin D3 and cyclin-dependent kinase 6 (CDK6). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


ABIN2-NFKB1-MAP3K8 complex

A protein complex that contains the precursor form of NF-kappaB (p105), the NF-kappaB inhibitor ABIN-2, and the kinase TPL-2 (MAP3K8); the complex stabilizes TPL-2 and is involved in signaling in lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-stimulated macrophages.


cyclin B2-CDK1 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin B2 and cyclin-dependent kinase 1 (CDK1). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


cyclin A2-CDK1 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin A2 and cyclin-dependent kinase 1 (CDK1). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


cyclin D2-CDK4 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin D2 and cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


cyclin E1-CDK2 complex

A protein complex consisting of cyclin E1 and cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2). Cyclins are characterized by periodicity in protein abundance throughout the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent kinases represent a family of serine/threonine protein kinases that become active upon binding to a cyclin regulatory partner.


erythromycin catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of erythromycin.


polyketide catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of polyketides, any of a diverse group of natural products synthesized via linear poly-beta-ketones, which are themselves formed by repetitive head-to-tail addition of acetyl (or substituted acetyl) units indirectly derived from acetate (or a substituted acetate) by a mechanism similar to that for fatty acid biosynthesis but without the intermediate reductive steps.


F-9775A catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of F-9775A.


granaticin catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of granaticin.


fonsecin catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of fonsecin.


F-9775B catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of F-9775B.


averantin catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of averantin.


oxytetracycline catabolic process

The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of oxytetracycline.


peptidyl-histidine hydroxylation

The hydroxylation of peptidyl-histidine to form peptidyl-hydroxyhistidine.


Cranial Nerve II Palsy

Partial or complete paralysis of the optic nerve.


Non-Neoplastic Optic Nerve Disorder

A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the optic nerve.


Unilateral Optic Nerve Hypoplasia

A congenital abnormality characterized by the underdevelopment of one optic nerve.


steroid sulfate

A sulfuric ester obtained by the formal condensation of a hydroxy group of any steroid with sulfuric acid.


cellular response to inositol

Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of an inositol stimulus.


agmatine deiminase activity

Catalysis of the reaction: agmatine + H2O = N-carbamoylputrescine + NH3.


cataract 33

Any early-onset non-syndromic cataract in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the BFSP1 gene.


3'-deoxyribose phosphate lyase activity

Catalysis of the conversion of a 3'-deoxyribose phosphate in DNA to a 3'-phosphate.


rib of vertebra 8

Rib that articulates with the parapophysis of the eighth centrum.


mammary gland cord morphogenesis

The process in which anatomical structures of the mammary gland cord are generated and organized. Mammary gland cords form when the mammary gland bud invades the mammary fat.


neuronal dense core vesicle membrane

The lipid bilayer surrounding a neuronal dense core vesicle.


Multiple Solitary Plasmacytoma of Bone

The presence of more than one plasmacytoma arising in the bone, concurrently or sequentially, in the absence of bone marrow involvement by plasma cell myeloma.


cricothyroid muscle

Intrinsic muscle of the larynx, innervated by the external division of the laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve. It attaches to the anterolateral surface of the cricoid cartilage and the external surface of the thyroid cartilage.


superficial inguinal ring

The exit of the inguinal canal.


levator ani muscle

The Levator ani is a broad, thin muscle, situated on the side of the pelvis. It is attached to the inner surface of the side of the lesser pelvis, and unites with its fellow of the opposite side to form the greater part of the floor of the pelvic cavity. It supports the viscera in pelvic cavity, and surrounds the various structures which pass through it. In combination with the Coccygeus muscle, it forms the pelvic diaphragm. [WP,unvetted].


aryepiglotticus muscle

The aryepiglotticus is a muscle of the larynx running in the aryepiglottic fold from the arytenoid cartilage to the epiglottis.


sphincter colli superficialis muscle

The sphincter colli superficialis is composed of transverse muscle fibers, and covers the entire area between the lower jaw and chest. The muscle is used to tighten the skin on the underside of the throat.


dilatator pupillae

A smooth muscle of the eye, running radially in the iris that functions as a dilator. [WP,unvetted].


pyramidalis

The pyramidalis is a small and triangular muscle, anterior to the Rectus abdominis, and contained in the rectus sheath.


levator labii superioris

The levator labii superioris (or quadratus labii superioris) is a broad sheet, the origin of which extends from the side of the nose to the zygomatic bone. Its medial fibers form the angular head, which arises by a pointed extremity from the upper part of the frontal process of the maxilla and passing obliquely downward and lateralward divides into two slips. One of these is inserted into the greater alar cartilage and skin of the nose; the other is prolonged into the lateral part of the upper lip, blending with the infraorbital head and with the Orbicularis oris. The intermediate portion or infraorbital head arises from the lower margin of the orbit immediately above the infraorbital foramen, some of its fibers being attached to the maxilla, others to the zygomatic bone. Its fibers converge, to be inserted into the muscular substance of the upper lip between the angular head and the Caninus. The lateral fibers, forming the zygomatic head, arise from the malar surface of the zygomatic bone immediately behind the zygomaticomaxillary suture and pass downward and medialward to the upper lip. [WP,unvetted].


sternocleidomastoid

A paired muscle in the superficial layers of the anterior portion of the neck. It acts to flex and rotate the head. It also acts as an accessory muscle of inspiration, along with the scalene muscles of the neck. [WP,unvetted].


platysma

The platysma is a pharyngeal arch 2 muscle and a superficial facial muscle that participates in oral/pharyngeal behaviors and is innervated by the cervical branch of the facial nerve. It attaches to the mandible and it attaches to the skin of the head, neck, and thoracic region where it is found superficial to the clavicle. Burrows et al. (2011) argue that in hylobatids (and, presumably, other primates) the platysma in the region of the modiolus represents both the cervicale and myoides muscles.


muscle of pelvic diaphragm

A muscular partition formed by the levatores ani and coccygei, with which may be included the parietal pelvic fascia on their upper and lower aspects. It separates the pelvic cavity above from the perineal region below.


external intercostal muscle

An intercostal muscle that aids in quiet and forced inhalation via elevation of the ribs, and expanding the transverse dimensions of the thoracic cavity.


sternooccipital muscle

A muscle organ that has_muscle_insertion a occipital bone and has_muscle_origin a sternum.


crico-arytenoid muscle

Cricoarytenoid muscles are muscles that connect the cricoid cartilage and arytenoid cartilage. More specifically, it can refer to: Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle.


psoas muscle

A powerful flexor of the thigh at the hip joint (psoas major) and a weak flexor of the trunk and lumbar spinal column (psoas minor). Psoas is derived from the Greek 'psoa', the plural meaning 'muscles of the loin'. It is a common site of infection manifesting as abscess (PSOAS ABSCESS). The psoas muscles and their fibers are also used frequently in experiments in muscle physiology.


abdominal external oblique muscle

The lateral abdominal wall muscle that is the most superficial, immediately superficial to the internal oblique.


muscle of larynx

The muscles associated with the larynx.


Deep Abdominal Muscle

The group of muscles in the torso that are closest to the spine and furthest from the skin such as the psoas muscle and the quadratus lumborum.


zygomaticus minor muscle

Facial muscle attached to the modiolus, corner (angle) of the mouth, and zygomatic bone. This muscle is ventral to the zygomaticus minor and dorsal to the platysma muscle. In many mammals this muscle also has an attachment to the cartilage of the external ear, in which case it is called the auriculolabialis inferior. See Diogo 2008; Diogo et al., 2009; Burrows et al.., 2011., also DuBrul, 1980.


craniocervical muscle

Any muscle organ that is part of either the head or the neck.


anterior abdominal wall muscle

Any skeletal muscle organ that is part of a anterior abdominal wall. Examples: the obliques, pyramidalis and transversus abdominus.


thyro-arytenoid

The Thyroarytenoid is a broad, thin, muscle which lies parallel with and lateral to the vocal fold, and supports the wall of the ventricle and its appendix. It functions in fine tonal control of the vocal cords.


buccinator muscle

The buccinator is a muscle that is attached to the mandible, skin, pterygomandibular raphe and maxilla, and is innervated by Cranial Nerve VII and participates in oropharyngeal behavior.


hyoid muscle

One of a group of muscles used in mastication and swallowing. These muscles are attached to the hyoid bone, which is suspended in the neck and forms the base of the tongue and larynx. The muscles are divided into suprahyoid (superior) or infrahyoid (inferior) groups relative to the bone[WP, generalized].


psoas major muscle

The psoas major is a long fusiform muscle placed on the side of the lumbar region of the vertebral column and brim of the lesser pelvis. It joins the iliacus muscle to form the iliopsoas. In less than 50 per cent of subjects the psoas major is accompanied by the psoas minor. [WP,unvetted].


scalene muscle

Any of the three pairs of muscles in the lateral neck, namely the scalenus anterior, scalenus medius, and scalenus posterior. They are innervated by the spinal nerves C4-C8[WP].


cremaster muscle

A thin layer of skeletal muscle that envelops the spermatic cord and testis of most male mammals in a series of loops; it is a continuation of the obliquus internus, arising from the inguinal ligament and inserting into the crest of the pubis and into the sheath of the rectus abdominis; it is innervated by the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve and functions to draw the testis up toward the superficial inguinal ring in response to cold or to stimulation of the nerve;.


zygomaticus major muscle

Facial muscle attached to the modiolus, corner (angle) of the mouth, and zygomatic bone. See Diogo 2008; Diogo et al., 2009; Burrows et al.., 2011., also DuBrul, 1980.


psoas minor muscle

The psoas minor is a long, slender skeletal muscle that, when present, is placed in front of the psoas major muscle. [WP,unvetted].


scalenus medius

The Scalenus medius, the largest and longest of the three scalene muscles, arises from the posterior tubercles of the transverse processes of the lower six cervical vertebræ. It descendes along the side of the vertebral column to insert by a broad attachment into the upper surface of the first rib, between the tubercle and the subclavian groove. The brachial plexus and the subclavian artery pass anterior to it. Because it elevates the upper ribs, the middle scalene muscle is also one of the accessory muscles of respiration. [WP,unvetted].


arytenoid muscle

A single muscle, filling up the posterior concave surfaces of the arytenoid cartilages. It arises from the posterior surface and lateral border of one arytenoid cartilage, and is inserted into the corresponding parts of the opposite cartilage. It consists of oblique and transverse parts.


transversus abdominis muscle

The lateral abdominal wall muscle that is deep to the internal oblique.


internal anal sphincter

The smooth muscle ring, formed by an increase of the circular muscle fibers of the rectum, situated at the upper end of the anal canal, internal to the outer voluntary external anal sphincter.


sphincter pupillae

A sphincter muscle that is part of the iris.


internal intercostal muscle

An intercostal muscle that aids in forced expiration (quiet expiration is a passive process).


tongue muscle

The muscular portion of the tongue.


Structure of corrugator supercilii muscle

One of two small facial muscles that are located behind the occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculis muscles, with which they blend, and allow movement of the eyebrows. They originate in the medial superciliary arch and insert into the skin above the middle of the supraorbital margins. They are innervated by the temporal branch of the facial nerve and supplied by branches from the superficial temporal and ophthalmic arteries.


ciliary muscle

The ciliary muscle is a ring of smooth muscle in the middle layer of the eye that controls the eye's accommodation for viewing objects at varying distances and regulates the flow of aqueous humour through Schlemm's canal. [WP,unvetted].


Procerus muscle

A pyramid-shaped muscle in the face that allows movement of the skin between the eyebrows. It originates on the lower part of the nasal bone and inserts into the frontalis muscle in the forehead. It is innervated by branches of the facial nerve and supplied by the facial artery.


abdominal internal oblique muscle

The lateral abdominal wall muscle that is deep to the external oblique and superficial to the transversus.


scalenus posterior

The Scalenus posterior (Scalenus posticus), the smallest and most deeply seated of the three Scaleni, arises, by two or three separate tendons, from the posterior tubercles of the transverse processes of the lower two or three cervical vertebræ, and is inserted by a thin tendon into the outer surface of the second rib, behind the attachment of the serratus ventralis. It is occasionally blended with the Scalenus medius. [WP,unvetted].


Coccygeal muscle

A muscle of the pelvic diaphragm located posterior the levator ani muscle, which arises from the ischial spine and inserts into the coccyx and lowest area of the sacrum, and functions to raise and support the pelvic floor.


urinary bladder detrusor smooth muscle

Bundles of smooth muscle fibers forming the muscular wall of the urinary bladder, which are arranged in a longitudinal and a circular layer and, on contraction, serve to expel urine[MP].


external anal sphincter

The Sphincter ani externus (external anal sphincter) is a flat plane of muscular fibers, elliptical in shape and intimately adherent to the integument surrounding the margin of the anus. [WP,unvetted].


nasal muscle

Any muscle organ that is part of an nose.


digastric muscle group

A group of muscles (or in some classifications, muscle bellies) that are located under the jaw and attach to the base of the cranium and typically attaches to the hyoid apparatus via a common tendon.


thyroepiglotticus muscle

Fibers of the thyroarytenoid muscle that continue to the margin of the epiglottis; it closes the inlet to the larynx.


iliacus muscle

The iliacus is a flat, triangular muscle, which fills the iliac fossa. [WP,unvetted].


quadratus lumborum

An abdominal muscle that inserts on the last rib and transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae. It is irregular and quadrilateral in shape, and broader below than above.


cutaneous trunci muscle

Lying just below the skin, cutaneus trunci is one of very few cutaneus muscles. It composes of a thin sheets of muscle that spred over the body in the superficial fasciae. Their role is to twich the skin to rid of pests etc. Cuteneus muscles are found in all domestic species.


muscle of auditory ossicle

A muscle of the tympanic cavity that attaches to an auditory ossicle.


deep inguinal ring

The entrance to the inguinal canal.


Superficial Abdominal Muscle

Any one of the anterior or anterolateral abdominal wall muscles, including the cremaster muscle, pyramidalis muscle, external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, and rectus abdominis muscles.


masticatory muscle

In humans: Muscles arising in the zygomatic arch that close the jaw. Their nerve supply is masseteric from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. (From Stedman, 25th ed).


chlorocycloalkane

A chlorohydrocarbon that is any cycloalkane substituted by at least one chloro group.


chlorocyclohexane

Any chlorocycloalkane that is cyclohexane substituted by at least one chlorine group.


Disrupted Suture

The loss of tension or continuity of sutures.


ovarian microcystic stromal tumor

A benign, unilateral tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of conspicuous microcystic changes, cellular areas, and a fibrous stroma.


benign ovarian sex cord-stromal tumor

A sex cord-stromal tumor arising from the ovary, without metastatic potential.


ovarian fibrothecoma

A rare, benign, sex cord-stromal neoplasm, with a typically unilateral location in the ovary, characterized by mixed features of both fibroma and thecoma. Patients may be asymptomatic or may present with pelvic/abdominal pain and/or distension and, occasionally, with post-menopausal bleeding. Large tumors (>10cm) are often associated with pleural effusion and ascites (the Meigs syndrome triad).


phyllodes tumor

A benign, borderline, or malignant fibroepithelial neoplasm arising from the breast and rarely the prostate gland. It may recur following resection. The recurrence rates are higher for borderline and malignant phyllodes tumors. In borderline and malignant phyllodes tumors metastases to distant anatomic sites can occur. The incidence of metastases is higher in malignant phyllodes tumors.


prostate phyllodes tumor

An unusual, biphasic benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the prostate gland. It is characterized by the presence of an epithelial glandular component and a proliferating stroma.


Borderline Vulvar Phyllodes Tumor

A rare borderline phyllodes tumor arising from the vulva.


benign prostate phyllodes tumor

A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the prostate gland and is characterized by the presence of hyperplastic glands and stroma that contains spindle-shaped cells.


Phyllodes Tumor of Anogenital Mammary-Type Glands

A rare phyllodes tumor that arises from mammary-like glands in the anogenital region.


Malignant Vulvar Phyllodes Tumor

A rare malignant phyllodes tumor arising from the vulva.


benign phyllodes tumor

A benign, circumscribed fibroepithelial neoplasm arising from the breast and rarely the prostate gland. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial structures which are arranged in clefts and by a hypercellular mesenchymal stroma which is organized in leaf-like structures. There is no evidence of cellular atypia or sarcomatous features.


malignant phyllodes tumor

A phyllodes tumor with sarcomatous stroma. The sarcomatous component is usually of the fibrosarcomatous type. Liposarcomatous, chondrosarcomatous, osteosarcomatous, or rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation may also occur in the stroma. It may recur and metastasize following surgical resection. The lung and skeleton are the anatomic sites most frequently involved by metastases.


Benign Vulvar Phyllodes Tumor

A rare benign phyllodes tumor arising from the vulva.


Vulvar Phyllodes Tumor

A rare benign, borderline, or malignant phyllodes tumor arising from the vulva.


Borderline phyllodes tumor

A phyllodes tumor with morphologic characteristics which are intermediate between a benign and a malignant phyllodes tumor. The stromal sarcomatous changes are of low grade and are often reminiscent of low grade fibrosarcomas.


malignant prostate phyllodes tumor

An unusual malignant tumor that arises from the prostate gland. It is characterized by the presence of glandular elements and a cellular stroma that exhibits mitotic activity and nuclear atypia.


positive regulation of shell calcification

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of shell calcification.


negative regulation of enamel mineralization

Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of enamel mineralization, the deposition of calcium salts in tooth enamel.


regulation of shell calcification

Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of shell calcification.


negative regulation of shell calcification

Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of shell calcification.


positive regulation of enamel mineralization

Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of enamel mineralization, the deposition of calcium salts in tooth enamel.


megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts 4, remitting


paternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 7

Paternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 7 is an uniparental disomy of paternal origin that most likely do not have any phenotypic expression except from cases of homozygosity for a recessive disease mutation for which only father is a carrier (e.g., cystic fibrosis, congenital chloride diarrhea, sensorineural hearing loss).


Injury to stomach with open wound into cavity

Trauma to the stomach associated with a break in the tissue that extends into the abdominal cavity.


deferent duct artery

An artery in males that provides blood to the vas deferens. The artery usually arises from the anterior trunk of the superior vesical artery. It accompanies the vas deferens into the testis, where it anastomoses with the testicular artery. In this way it also supplies blood to the testis and epididymis. A small branch supplies the ureter[WP].


spindle cell neoplasm

A benign or malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle cells.


ciliary body spindle cell melanoma

A spindle cell melanoma that involves the ciliary body.


spindle cell lipoma

A benign circumscribed tumor composed of spindled cells, adipocytes, and collagen bundles. There is no evidence of nuclear hyperchromasia or mitotic activity.


iris spindle cell melanoma

A spindle cell melanoma that involves the iris.


desmoplastic melanoma

A melanoma of the skin characterized by a proliferation of atypical spindled melanocytes in the dermis, in a background of abundant collagen. It usually presents as an amelanotic raised nodular lesion.


malignant spindle cell neoplasm

A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical spindle cells.


spindle cell melanoma

A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes.


spindle cell intraocular melanoma

A melanoma arising from the choroid, ciliary body, or the iris. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped melanocytes.


buccal salivary gland

A salivary gland that is part of a cheek.


Catalysis of the reaction: heteroglycan + GDP-mannose = (1->3)-alpha-D-mannosylheteroglycan + GDP.


Complex Endometrial Hyperplasia with Atypia

A hyperplasia characterized by excessive proliferation of endometrial cells, resulting in the formation of complex epithelial structures.  It is associated with cytologic atypia and an increased risk of endometrial adenocarcinoma.


Ampulla of Vater Enterochromaffin Cell Serotonin-Producing Neuroendocrine Tumor

A well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the ampulla of Vater and the periampullary region.  It produces serotonin.


gonococcal cystitis

An cystitis caused by infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae.


acute gonococcal cystitis

Acute form of gonococcal cystitis.


endonucleolytic cleaveage between SSU-rRNA and LSU-rRNA of tetracistronic rRNA transcript (SSU-rRNA, LSU-rRNA, 4.5S-rRNA, 5S-rRNA)

Endonucleolytic cleavages between the SSU-rRNA and the LSU-rRNA of an rRNA molecule originally produced as a tetracistronic rRNA transcript that contains the Small Subunit (SSU) rRNA, Large Subunit (LSU) the 4.5S rRNA, and the 5S rRNA in that order from 5' to 3' along the primary transcript. These cleavages liberate tRNAs from the polycistronic transcript as well as separating the SSU and LSU containing transcript. Note that the use of the word tetracistronic refers only to the number of mature rRNA molecules which will be produced from the primary transcript and ignores tRNAs that may also be present within the primary transcript.


amine

A compound formally derived from ammonia by replacing one, two or three hydrogen atoms by hydrocarbyl groups.


(S)-(+)-clenbuterol

The (S)-enantiomer of clenbuterol.


(R)-Dobutamine

The (R)-enantiomer of dobutamine.


Pyrrole

A tautomer of pyrrole that has the double bonds at positions 2 and 4.


The (S)-enantiomer of amfepramone.


A 2-phenylcyclopropan-1-amine that is the (1S,2R)-enantiomer of tranylcypromine.


secondary amine

A compound formally derived from ammonia by replacing two hydrogen atoms by hydrocarbyl groups.


A propanoate ester that is propyl propanoate substituted by a benzyl and phenyl group at position 1, a methyl group at position 2 and a dimethylamino group at position 3.


primary arylamine

A primary amine formally derived from ammonia by replacing one hydrogen atom by an aryl group. R-NH2 where R is an aryl group.


aralkylamine

An alkylamine in which the alkyl group is substituted by an aromatic group.


Levdobutamine

The (S)-enantiomer of dobutamine.


Parnate

A 2-phenylcyclopropan-1-amine that is the (1R,2S)-enantiomer of tranylcypromine.


alkylamine

Any primary amine in which the substituent attached to nitrogen is an alkyl group.


(R)-Clenbuterol

The (R)-enantiomer of clenbuterol.


amino fatty acid

A fatty acid containing at least one amino substituent.


Levamfetamine

A 1-phenylpropan-2-amine that has R configuration.


omega-amino fatty acid

Any fatty acid n atoms long having an amino substituent at position n (omega).