mesotarsal joint

description: An ankle joint that passes between the proximal and distal tarsals.


interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 5

category: biolink:GrossAnatomicalStructure biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

description: An interphalangeal joint of pes that is part of a pedal digit 5.


stifle joint

description: A complex joint in the hind limbs of quadruped mammals such as the sheep, horse or dog. It is the equivalent joint to the human knee. It is often the largest synovial joint in the body.


joint connecting upper and lower jaws

description: Synovial joint that articulates bones of upper and lower jaw.


transverse tarsal joint

description: The transverse tarsal joint is formed by the articulation of the calcaneus with the cuboid, and the articulation of the talus with the navicular. The movement which takes place in this joint is more extensive than that in the other tarsal joints, and consists of a sort of rotation by means of which the foot may be slightly flexed or extended, the sole being at the same time carried medially (inverted) or laterally.


interphalangeal joint of manual digit 5

description: An interphalangeal joint of manus that is part of a manual digit 5.


radio-ulnar joint

description: A joint that connects the radius and the ulna. Examples: proximal and distal radio-ulnar joints.


interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 2

description: An interphalangeal joint of pes that is part of a pedal digit 2.


exoccipital-atlas joint

description: A synovial joint that connects a vertebral bone 1 and connects a exoccipital bone.


midcarpal joint

description: An intercarpal that connects a proximal and distal carpal bone.


name: metacarpophalangeal joint of manual digit 3

description: A skeletal joint that connects a metacarpal bone and connects a proximal phalanx of manual digit 3.


incudomallear joint

description: The saddle-shaped synovial joint connecting the incus and the malleus.


name: metacarpophalangeal joint of manual digit 5

description: A skeletal joint that connects a metacarpal bone and connects a proximal phalanx of manual digit 5.


atlanto-occipital joint

description: The Atlanto-occipital joint (articulation between the atlas and the occipital bone) consists of a pair of condyloid joints. The atlanto-occipital joint is a synovial joint. The ligaments connecting the bones are: Two Articular capsules; Posterior atlantoöccipital membrane; Anterior atlantoöccipital membrane; Lateral atlantoöccipital.


name: metatarsophalangeal joint of pedal digit 3

description: A skeletal joint that connects a metatarsal bone and connects a distal phalanx of pedal digit 3.


manus joint

description: A skeletal joint that is part of a manus (hand) [Automatically generated definition].


acromioclavicular joint

description: Any joint connecting the acromonion of the scapula and clavicle.


cricoarytenoid joint

description: The cricoarytenoid articulation (or joint) is a joint connecting the cricoid cartilage and the arytenoid cartilage.


distal interphalangeal joint of digit 4

description: A distal interphalangeal joint that is part of a digit 4.


proximal radio-ulnar joint

description: The proximal radioulnar articulation (superior radioulnar joint) is a trochoid or pivot joint between the circumference of the head of the radius and the ring formed by the radial notch of the ulna and the annular ligament.


tibiotalar joint

description: A skeletal joint that connects a tibia and connects a talus.


name: distal interphalangeal joint of manual digit 2


calcaneocuboid joint

description: Calcaneocuboid Articulation (articulation of the calcaneus with the cuboid). The ligaments connecting the calcaneus with the cuboid are five in number, viz. , the articular capsule, the dorsal calcaneocuboid, part of the bifurcated, the long plantar, and the plantar calcaneocuboid.


talocalcaneonavicular joint

description: The talocalcaneonavicular articulation is an arthrodial joint: the rounded head of the talus being received into the concavity formed by the posterior surface of the navicular, the anterior articular surface of the calcaneus, and the upper surface of the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament. There are two ligaments in this joint: the articular capsule and the dorsal talonavicular.


temporomandibular joint

description: A synovial joint of the jaw that connects the mandible to the temporal bone.


interphalangeal joint of manual digit 2

description: An interphalangeal joint of manus that is part of a manual digit 2.


carpometacarpal joint of digit 1

description: A carpometacarpal joint that connects to metacarpal 1.


name: metacarpophalangeal joint of manual digit 4

description: A skeletal joint that connects a metacarpal bone and connects a proximal phalanx of manual digit 4.


intertarsal joint

description: Intertarsal articulations are the joints of the tarsus. The specific intertarsal articulations are: Talocalcaneal articulation Talocalcaneonavicular articulation Calcaneocuboid articulation Cuneonavicular articulation Cuboideonavicular articulation Intercuneiform articulation Cuneocuboid articulation.


name: fusion of virus membrane with host macropinosome membrane

category: biolink:BiologicalProcess biolink:Occurrent biolink:OntologyClass biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

description: Fusion of a viral membrane with a host macropinosome membrane, that occurs after internalization of the virus through the endosomal pathway, and results in release of the viral contents into the host cell cytoplasm.


Matthew-Wood syndrome

category: biolink:Disease biolink:DiseaseOrPhenotypicFeature biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing

description: Matthew-Wood syndrome is a rare clinical entity including as main characteristics anophthalmia or severe microphthalmia, and pulmonary hypoplasia or aplasia.


name: negative regulation of acetylcholine secretion, neurotransmission

description: Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of the regulated release of acetylcholine.


inferior rectal artery

description: The inferior rectal artery (inferior hemorrhoidal artery) is an artery that supplies blood to the lower half of the anal canal. [WP,unvetted].


name: Testicular Mixed Germ Cell-Sex Cord-Stromal Tumor

description: A testicular mixed germ cell-sex cord-stromal tumor in which the neoplastic germ cells and the neoplastic sex cord-stromal cells do not form nests and are instead arranged in a diffuse pattern.


N-acyl-D-amino-acid deacylase activity

category: biolink:MolecularActivity biolink:Occurrent biolink:OntologyClass biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

description: Catalysis of the reaction: H2O + N-acyl-D-amino acid = D-amino acid + an acid.


Empyema with fistula

description: An empyema with a fistula.


insect adult head

description: Head of the adult organism.


name: structural constituent of carboxysome shell

description: The action of a molecule that contributes to the structural integrity of a carboxysome shell, an organelle found in all cyanobacteria and some chemoautotrophs, consisting of a proteinaceous coat and enzymes for the fixation of CO2.


rhombomere 3 formation

description: The process that gives rise to rhombomere 3. This process pertains to the initial formation of a structure from unspecified parts. Rhombomeres are transverse segments of the developing rhombencephalon. Rhombomeres are lineage restricted, express different genes from one another, and adopt different developmental fates. Rhombomeres are numbered in anterior to posterior order.


CD27 receptor binding

description: Binding to a CD27, a receptor found on the surface of T cells and some B cells and NK cells.


positive regulation of CD4 production

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of CD4.


regulation of CD4 production

description: Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of the chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of CD4.


negative regulation of CD4 production

description: Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of the chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of CD4.


intracellular auxin homeostasis

description: A homeostatic process involved in the maintenance of a steady state level of auxin within a cell.


name: carbon catabolite repression of transcription from RNA polymerase II promoter by glucose

description: A transcription regulation process in which the presence of glucose leads to a decrease in the frequency, rate, or extent of transcription of specific RNA polymerase II-transcribed genes involved in the metabolism of other carbon sources. Carbon catabolite repression is a mechanism of genetic regulation which the accumulation of catabolites of one substance in the cell represses the formation of enzymes that contribute to the catabolism of other substances.


name: negative regulation of transcription by glucose

description: Any process involving glucose that decreases the frequency, rate or extent or transcription.


name: negative regulation of transcription from RNA polymerase II promoter by glucose

description: Any process involving glucose that decreases the frequency, rate or extent or transcription from an RNA polymerase II promoter.


name: congenital plasminogen activator inhibitor type 1 deficiency

description: Congenital plasminogen activator inhibitor type 1 (PAI-1) deficiency is a rare genetic bleeding disorder characterized by premature lysis of hemostatic clots and a moderate bleeding tendency.


name: Advanced Chromophobe Renal Cell Carcinoma

description: Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Adenocarcinoma

description: An adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Progesterone Receptor-Positive Breast Carcinoma

description: Progesterone receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Ovarian Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma

description: Ovarian clear cell adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Endometrial Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma

description: Endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


description: Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Sebaceous Carcinoma

description: Sebaceous carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Distal Bile Duct Adenocarcinoma

description: Distal bile duct adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced renal cell carcinoma

description: Renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Prostate Adenocarcinoma with Neuroendocrine Differentiation

description: Prostate adenocarcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Gastric Adenocarcinoma

description: Gastric adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Hormone Receptor-Negative Breast Carcinoma

description: Hormone receptor-negative breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Unclassified Renal Cell Carcinoma

description: A renal cell carcinoma, not otherwise specified, that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Triple-Negative Breast Carcinoma

description: Triple-negative breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Cervical Adenocarcinoma

description: A cervical adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Hepatocellular Carcinoma

description: Hepatocellular carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Cholangiocarcinoma

description: A cholangiocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Estrogen Receptor-Positive Breast Carcinoma

description: Estrogen receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Endometrial Adenocarcinoma

description: Endometrial adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Primary Peritoneal High Grade Serous Adenocarcinoma

description: A primary peritoneal high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Breast Adenocarcinoma

description: Breast adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Appendix Adenocarcinoma

description: Appendix adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Sarcomatoid Renal Cell Carcinoma

description: Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Hilar Cholangiocarcinoma

description: Hilar cholangiocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Clear Cell Renal Cell Carcinoma

description: A clear cell renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Fallopian Tube High Grade Serous Adenocarcinoma

description: A fallopian tube high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Adult Hepatocellular Carcinoma

description: A hepatocellular carcinoma that occurs during adulthood and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Papillary Renal Cell Carcinoma

description: A papillary renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Endometrial Serous Adenocarcinoma

description: Endometrial serous adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Vaginal Adenocarcinoma

description: Vaginal adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma

description: Gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Colorectal Adenocarcinoma

description: Colorectal adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Esophageal Adenocarcinoma

description: Esophageal adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced HER2-Positive Breast Carcinoma

description: HER2-positive breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma

description: Pancreatic adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Adenocarcinoma of Unknown Primary

description: An adenocarcinoma of unknown primary that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Hormone Receptor-Positive Breast Carcinoma

description: Hormone receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Pancreatic Ductal Adenocarcinoma

description: Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Rectal Adenocarcinoma

description: Rectal adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Lung Adenocarcinoma

description: Lung adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Colon Adenocarcinoma

description: Colon adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Adrenal Cortical Carcinoma

description: Adrenal cortical carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Fibrolamellar Carcinoma

description: Fibrolamellar carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma

description: Endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced HER2-Negative Breast Carcinoma

description: A HER2-negative breast adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Prostate Adenocarcinoma

description: A prostatic adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Ovarian Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma

description: Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: positive regulation of embryo sac central cell differentiation

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of embryo sac central cell differentiation.


name: negative regulation of embryo sac central cell differentiation

description: Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of embryo sac central cell differentiation.


gastrophrenic ligament

description: The portion of the greater omentum that extends from the greater curvature of the stomach to the inferior surface of the diaphragm.


name: Locally Advanced Unresectable Gallbladder Carcinoma

description: Gallbladder carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection.


name: autosomal dominant nonsyndromic hearing loss 17

description: Any autosomal dominant nonsyndromic deafness in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the MYH9 gene.


description: Catalysis of the reaction: flavonol 3-O-beta-D-glucoside + malonyl-CoA = malonyl-flavonol 3-O-beta-D-glucoside + CoA.


mitotic anaphase A

description: The cell cycle phase during which the kinetochore microtubules shorten as chromosomes move toward the spindle poles as part of mitosis.


Stage IIIA Uveal Melanoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IIIA includes: (T2c-d, N0, M0); (T3b-c, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0).  T2c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T2d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T3b: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement. T3c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T4a: Iris: Tumor with extrascleral extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: positive regulation of P-type sodium:potassium-exchanging transporter activity

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of sodium:potassium-exchanging ATPase activity.


name: Toll receptor ligand protein activation cascade

description: A protein activation cascade that generates the active Toll receptor ligand and consists of the cascade of enzymatic reactions initiated by extracellular recognition factors, leading to the cleavage of the inactive form of spatzle family of ligands.


acne keloid

description: A chronic eruption of fibrous papules that develop and fuse to form a thick sclerotic, hypertrophic band at a site of deep folliculitis, usually along the posterior hairline of the scalp. It is most commonly seen in men of African descent.


Asperger syndrome

description: A disorder most often diagnosed in the pediatric years in which the individual displays marked impairment in social interaction and a repetitive, stereotyped pattern of behavior. The individual, however, displays no delay in language or cognitive development, which differentiates Asperger Syndrome from autism.


Femoropopliteal Artery Segment

category: biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

description: The segment of the arterial system that includes the popliteal artery and its origin from the femoral artery.


positive regulation of fertilization

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of fertilization.


rod bipolar cell differentiation

description: The process in which a relatively unspecialized cell acquires the specialized features of a rod bipolar cell.


name: cone retinal bipolar cell differentiation

description: The process in which a relatively unspecialized cell acquires the specialized features of a cone retinal bipolar cell.


epithelium of bronchus

description: An epithelium that is part of a bronchus [Automatically generated definition].


pseudostratified columnar epithelium

description: A simple columnar epithelium that looks stratified but is not, because its cells are arranged with their nuclei at different levels.


name: pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

description: Epithelium composed of a single layer of cells, appearing as layered because the column-shaped cells vary in height so the nuclei are at different levels. The basal portions of all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. It lines the respiratory system and the male reproductive tract. The cilia in the respiratory tract are motile, while the stereocilia in the male reproductive tract are immobile.


epithelium of trachea

description: The epithelial lining of the trachea which contains numerous ciliated cells.


seminal vesicle epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a seminal vesicle [Automatically generated definition].


vas deferens epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a vas deferens [Automatically generated definition].


nasal cavity respiratory epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of the respiratory segment of the nasal mucosa [Automatically generated definition].


skin of neck

description: A zone of skin that is part of a neck [Automatically generated definition].


DEXTROFLOXACINE

The (R)-enantiomer of ofloxacin.


Either of the two diastereoisomers of 1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine in which the imidazol-1-ylmethyl group and the aryloxymethyl group are in a cis relationship to each other - i.e. they are both on the same side of the plane of the dioxolane ring. The antifungal drug ketoconazole is a racemic mixture of the two cis diastereoisomers.


Either of the two diastereoisomers of 1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine in which the imidazol-1-ylmethyl group and the aryloxymethyl group are in a trans relationship to each other - i.e. they are on opposite sides of the plane of the dioxolane ring. (N.B. The antifungal drug ketoconazole is a racemic mixture of the two cis diastereoisomers.)


(S)-GATIFLOXACIN

The (S)-enantiomer of gatifloxacin.


aripiprazole lauroxil

A dodecanoate ester obtained by formal condensation of the carboxy group of dodecanoic acid with the hydroxy group of 7-{4-[4-(2,3-dichlorophenyl)piperazin-1-yl]butoxy}-2-oxo-3,4-dihydroquinolin-1(2H)-yl]methanol. A prodrug for aripiprazole, it is used for treatment of schizophrenia.


difloxacin

A quinolone that is pefloxacin in which the ethyl group at position 1 of the quinolone has been replaced by a p-fluorophenyl group. A broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, it is used (usually as the monohydrochloride salt) for the treatment of bacterial infections in dogs.


A 1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine in which the dioxolane ring has R configuration at positions 2 and 4.


(R)-GATIFLOXACIN

The (R)-enantiomer of gatifloxacin.


sulfociprofloxacin

An organosulfonic acid that is ciprofloxacin  carrying a sulfo group at position 4 of the piperazine ring. It is a metabolite of ciprofloxacin.


(S)-TEMAFLOXACIN

1-(2,4-difluorophenyl)-6-fluoro-7-(3-methylpiperazin-1-yl)-4-oxo-1,4-dihydroquinoline-3-carboxylic acid that has R configuration.


(S)-temafloxacin

1-(2,4-difluorophenyl)-6-fluoro-7-(3-methylpiperazin-1-yl)-4-oxo-1,4-dihydroquinoline-3-carboxylic acid that has S configuration.


temafloxacin

A racemate comprising equimolar amounts of (R)- and (S)-temafloxacin. Both enantiomers both exhibit similar pharmacological profiles. Temafloxacin was briefly used (either as the free base or as the hydrochloride salt) as an antibacterial drug but was withdrawn worldwide in 1992 following reports of serious side effects, including severe hypoglycaemia, haemolytic anaemia, liver and kidney dysfunction, anaphylaxis, and death.


terconazole

A dioxolane that is 1,3-dioxolane which is substituted at positions 2, 2, and 4 by 2,4-dichlorophenyl, 1H-1,2,4-triazol-1-ylmethyl, and [4-(4-isopropylpiperazin-1-yl)phenoxy]methyl groups, respectively.


A cis-1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine which dioxolane moiety has (2R,4S)-configuration.


enrofloxacin

A quinolinemonocarboxylic acid that is 1,4-dihydroquinoline-3-carboxylic acid substituted by an oxo group at position 4, a fluoro group at position 6, a cyclopropyl group at position 1 and a 4-ethylpiperazin-1-yl group at position 7. It is a veterinary antibacterial agent used for the treatment of pets.


A 1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine in which the dioxolane ring has S configuration at positions 2 and 4.


metabolite of ciprofloxacin


levoketoconazole

A cis-1-acetyl-4-(4-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(1H-imidazol-1-ylmethyl)-1,3-dioxolan-4-yl]methoxy}phenyl)piperazine which dioxolane moiety has (2S,4R)-configuration.


name: epithelial cell migration involved in mesonephric proximal tubule morphogenesis

description: The orderly movement of epithelial cells within a renal tubule that contributes to mesonephric proximal tubule morphogenesis.


name: epithelial cell migration involved in proximal tubule morphogenesis

description: The orderly movement of epithelial cells within a renal tubule that contributes to proximal tubule morphogenesis.


name: epithelial cell migration involved in metanephric proximal tubule morphogenesis

description: The orderly movement of epithelial cells within a renal tubule that contributes to metanephric proximal tubule morphogenesis.


isobutyryl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency

description: An inborn error of valine metabolism. The prevalence is unknown. Only one symptomatic patient (with anemia, failure to thrive, dilated cardiomyopathy and plasma carnitine deficiency) has been described so far, but several series of patients have been identified through newborn screening programs relying on detection of increased C(4)-carnitine levels by tandem mass spectrometry. The disorder is caused by mutations in the ACAD8 gene (11q25).


succinyl-CoA biosynthetic process

description: The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of succinyl-CoA.


posterior auricular vein

description: The posterior auricular vein begins upon the side of the head, in a plexus which communicates with the tributaries of the occipital vein and superficial temporal veins. It descends behind the auricula, and joins the posterior division of the posterior facial vein to form the external jugular. It receive the stylomastoid vein, and some tributaries from the cranial surface of the auricula.


auricular vein

description: Any vein serving the ear region.


anterior auricular vein

description: The anterior auricular veins are veins which drain the anterior aspect of the external ear. [WP,unvetted].


Metastatic rectal adenocarcinoma

description: An adenocarcinoma that arises from the rectum and has metastasized to another anatomic site.


name: Locally Advanced Unresectable Rectal Adenocarcinoma

description: A rectal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection.


Locally Advanced Rectal Adenocarcinoma

description: Rectal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes.


name: negative regulation of tau-protein kinase activity

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of tau-protein kinase activity.


name: positive regulation of tau-protein kinase activity

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of tau-protein kinase activity.


BCOR-CCNB3 sarcoma

description: A sarcoma with BCOR genetic alterations that is characterized by the presence of BCOR-CCNB3 fusion gene.


skin of ankle

description: A zone of skin that is part of an ankle [Automatically generated definition].


name: mixed phenotype acute leukemia with BCR-ABL1

description: An acute biphenotypic leukemia that is characterized by blasts that also carry the translocation t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2) by karyotypic analysis or the BCR-ABL1 translocation by FISH or PCR.


name: Acute Leukemia of Ambiguous Lineage with Defining Genetic Abnormalities

description: Acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage characterized by the presence of defined genetic alterations.


name: mixed phenotype acute leukemia with t(v;11q23.3)

description: A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts carry a translocation between the KMT2A gene at 11q23.3 and another gene partner. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.


name: Acute Leukemia of Ambiguous Lineage with BCL11B Rearrangement

description: A rare acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage characterized by the presence of BCL11B gene rearrangement.


name: PUM1-associated developmental disability-ataxia-seizure syndrome


name: developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 2

description: Any early infantile epileptic encephalopathy in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the CDKL5 gene.


name: spastic paraplegia-severe developmental delay-epilepsy syndrome

description: Spastic paraplegia-severe developmental delay-epilepsy syndrome is a rare, genetic, complex spastic paraplegia disorder characterized by an infantile-onset of psychomotor developmental delay with severe intellectual disability and poor speech acquisition, associated with seizures (mostly myoclonic), muscular hypotonia which may be noted at birth, and slowly progressive spasticity in the lower limbs leading to severe gait disturbances. Ocular abnormalities and incontinence are commonly associated. Other symptoms may include verbal dyspraxia, hypogenitalism, macrocephaly and sensorineural hearing loss, as well as dystonic movements and ataxia with upper limb involvement.


name: infantile-onset mesial temporal lobe epilepsy with severe cognitive regression

description: A rare monogenic disease with infantile-onset pharmacoresistant focal seizures of mesial temporal lobe onset manifesting with unresponsiveness, hypertonia and automatisms and cognitive regression soon after seizure onset leading to severe intellectual disability with behavioral abnormalities.


name: focal epilepsy-intellectual disability-cerebro-cerebellar malformation

description: Focal epilepsy-intellectual disability-cerebro-cerebellar malformation is a rare, genetic neurological disorder characterized by early infantile-onset of seizures, borderline to moderate intellectual disability, cerebellar features including dysarthria and ataxia and cerebellar atrophy and cortical thickening observed on MRI imaging. Seizures are typically focal (with prominent eye blinking, facial and limb jerking), precipitated by fever and often commence with an oral sensory aura (anesthetized tongue sensation). When not properly controlled by anti-epileptic medication, weekly frequency and persistence into adult life is observed.


name: Mowat-Wilson syndrome due to a ZEB2 point mutation


name: autosomal recessive spinocerebellar ataxia 15

description: Any autosomal recessive cerebellar ataxia-epilepsy-intellectual disability syndrome in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the RUBCN gene.


Rett syndrome, congenital variant

description: An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the FOXG1 gene, encoding forkhead box protein G1. It is the most severe form of Rett syndrome, and typically manifests within the first three months of life.


name: X-linked dominant intellectual disability-epilepsy syndrome


name: Mowat-Wilson syndrome due to monosomy 2q22


FOXG1 disorder

description: A monogenic disease that has material basis in mutation in the FOXG1 gene.


name: developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 8


name: developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 9

description: Female restricted epilepsy with intellectual disability is a rare X-linked epilepsy syndrome characterized by febrile or afebrile seizures (mainly tonic-clonic, but also absence, myoclonic, and atonic) starting in the first years of life and, in most cases, developmental delay and intellectual disability of variable severity. Behavioral disturbances (e.g. autistic features, hyperactivity, and aggressiveness) are also frequently associated. This disease affects exclusively females, with male carriers being unaffected, despite an X-linked inheritance.


name: syndromic X-linked intellectual disability Hedera type

description: X-linked intellectual disability, Hedera type is a rare X-linked intellectual disability syndrome characterized by an onset in infancy of delayed motor and speech milestones, generalized tonic-clonic seizures and drop attacks, and mild to moderate intellectual disability. Additional, less common manifestations include scoliosis, ataxia (resulting in progressive gait disturbance), and bilateral pes planovalgus. Physical appearance is normal with no dysmorphic features reported.


name: autosomal recessive cerebellar ataxia - epilepsy - intellectual disability syndrome


name: intellectual developmental disorder with dysmorphic facies, seizures, and distal limb anomalies

description: IDDFSDA is an autosomal recessive severe multisystem disorder characterized by poor overall growth, developmental delay, early-onset seizures, intellectual disability, and dysmorphic features. There is phenotypic variability. The most severely affected patients have a neurodevelopmental disorder with microcephaly, absent speech, and inability to walk, and they require feeding tubes. Some patients have congenital heart defects or nonspecific abnormalities on brain imaging. Less severely affected individuals have mild to moderate intellectual disability with normal speech and motor development (summary by {1:Santiago-Sim et al., 2017}).


name: neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis 8 northern epilepsy variant

description: Progressive epilepsy-intellectual deficit, Finnish type (also known as Northern epilepsy) is a subtype of neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis (NCL) characterized by seizures, progressive decline of intellectual capacities and variable loss of vision.


name: epilepsy, X-linked 1, with variable learning disabilities and behavior disorders

description: An epilepsy, X-linked, with or without impaired intellectual development and dysmorphic features characterized by epilepsy, learning difficulties, macrocephaly, and aggressive behavior. It has been described in males from a four-generation kindred. It is transmitted as an X-linked recessive trait and is likely to be caused by mutations in the gene encoding synapsin I (Xp11.3-q12).


name: severe neonatal-onset encephalopathy with microcephaly

description: An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the MECP2 gene, encoding methyl-CpG-binding protein 2. It is characterized by severe neonatal encephalopathy.


name: X-linked intellectual disability-epilepsy syndrome


name: epilepsy, X-linked 2, with or without impaired intellectual development and dysmorphic features


name: epilepsy, X-linked, with or without impaired intellectual development and dysmorphic features


name: neonatal-onset encephalopathy with rigidity and seizures


name: autosomal recessive spinocerebellar ataxia 12

description: Autosomal recessive cerebellar ataxia-epilepsy-intellectual disability syndrome due to WWOX deficiency is a rare autosomal recessive cerebellar ataxia-epilepsy-intellectual disability syndrome characterized by early-childhood onset of cerebellar ataxia associated with generalized tonic-clonic epilepsy and psychomotor development delay, dysarthria, gaze-evoked nystagmus and learning disability. Other features in some patients include upper motor neuron signs with leg spasticity and extensor plantar responses, and mild cerebellar atrophy on brain MRI.


Mowat-Wilson syndrome

description: Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterized by a distinct facial phenotype, intellectual disability, epilepsy, Hirschsprung disease (HSCR) and variable congenital malformations.


name: global developmental delay-neuro-ophthalmological abnormalities-seizures-intellectual disability syndrome


name: FOXG1 syndrome due to intragenic alteration


name: spinocerebellar ataxia, autosomal recessive 23


name: developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 23


name: neurodevelopmental disorder with epilepsy, cataracts, feeding difficulties, and delayed brain myelination

description: Neurodevelopmental disorder with epilepsy, cataracts, feeding difficulties, and delayed brain myelination is a syndromic form of severe to profound intellectual disability with onset of delayed psychomotor development and seizures in infancy. Affected children have hypotonia, feeding difficulties resulting in failure to thrive, and inability to speak or walk, and they tend to show repetitive stereotypic behaviors. Brain imaging shows cerebral atrophy and delayed myelination (summary by {1:Schoch et al., 2017}).


name: polyhydramnios, megalencephaly, and symptomatic epilepsy


name: developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, 73


name: Lung Large Cell Carcinoma by AJCC v7 Stage

description: A term that refers to the staging of large cell lung carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system.


name: Stage IIA Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Large cell lung cancer stage III

description: Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Stage IIIA Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Large cell lung cancer stage II

description: Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associated atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumor nodule(s) in the same lobe. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Stage IA Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Stage IB Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Large cell lung cancer stage I

description: Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Stage IIB Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associated atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumor nodule(s) in the same lobe. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Stage 0 Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7

description: Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)


Large cell lung cancer stage IV

description: Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Stage IIIB Lung Large Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


TOM complex

category: biolink:CellularComponent biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

description: A large mitochondrial outer membrane translocase complex that mediates transport of proteins into mitochondrial compartments. TOM transports beta-barrel precursors across the outer membrane and the sorting and assembly machinery (SAM complex) inserts them into the target membrane.


name: positive regulation of L-threonine import across plasma membrane

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of L-threonine import into cell.


name: positive regulation of L-glutamine import across plasma membrane

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of L-glutamine import into cell.


name: positive regulation of acetylcholine uptake

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the directed movement of acetylcholine into a cell.


name: positive regulation of L-glutamate import across plasma membrane

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of L-glutamate import into a cell.


name: positive regulation of acetylcholine secretion, neurotransmission

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the regulated release of acetylcholine.


name: positive regulation of amino acid uptake involved in synaptic transmission

description: Any process that activates, maintains or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the directed movement of amino acid neurotransmitters into a neuron or glial cell.


name: positive regulation of glutamine transport

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of glutamine transport.


name: positive regulation of glycine secretion, neurotransmission

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of glycine secretion, neurotransmission.


name: positive regulation of glutamate secretion, neurotransmission

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of glutamate secretion, where glutamate acts as a neurotransmitter.


name: positive regulation of glutamate neurotransmitter secretion in response to membrane depolarization

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of glutamate secretion in response to membrane depolarization, where glutamate acts as a neurotransmitter.


name: positive regulation of gamma-aminobutyric acid uptake involved in transmission of nerve impulse

description: Any process that activates, maintains or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the directed movement of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA, 4-aminobutyrate) into a neuron or glial cell.


name: positive regulation of glycine import across plasma membrane

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of glycine import.


name: positive regulation of glutamate uptake involved in transmission of nerve impulse

description: Any process that activates, maintains or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the directed movement of L-glutamate into a neuron or glial cell.


name: positive regulation of L-tyrosine import across plasma membrane

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of L-tyrosine import into the cell.


name: positive regulation of L-lysine import across plasma membrane

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of L-lysine import into cell.


name: positive regulation of aspartate secretion

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of aspartate secretion.


name: positive regulation of L-proline import across plasma membrane

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of L-proline import across plasma membrane.


name: positive regulation of L-methionine import across plasma membrane

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of L-methionine import across plasma membrane.


name: Stage IV AIDS-Related Anal Canal Cancer AJCC v6 and v7

description: Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)


AIDS-Related Anal Canal Carcinoma

description: A carcinoma arising from the anal canal and occurring in HIV-positive patients.


name: Stage III AIDS-Related Anal Canal Cancer AJCC v6 and v7

description: Stage III includes: IIIA (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0); IIIB (T4, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T4: Tumor of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).  N1: Metastasis in perirectal lymph node(s).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N2: Metastasis in unilateral internal iliac and/or inguinal lymph node(s).  N3: Metastasis in perirectal and inguinal lymph nodes and/or bilateral internal iliac and/or inguinal lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)


AIDS-related anal cancer recurrent

description: The reemergence of anal canal carcinoma in HIV-positive patients after a period of remission.


name: Stage 0 AIDS-Related Anal Canal Cancer AJCC v6 and v7

description: Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)


name: Stage II AIDS-Related Anal Canal Cancer AJCC v6 and v7

description: Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3,N0, M0).  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)


name: Stage I AIDS-Related Anal Canal Cancer AJCC v6 and v7

description: Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)


glucomannan binding

description: Binding to glucomannan.


heteropolysaccharide binding

description: Binding to a heteropolysaccharide, a glycan composed of more than one type of monosaccharide residue.


galactomannan binding

description: Binding to galactomannan.


description: The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of ent-pimara-8(14),15-diene.


description: The chemical reactions and pathways involving ent-pimara-8(14),15-diene.


description: The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of ent-pimara-8(14),15-diene.


Refractory Small Intestinal Carcinoma

description: Small intestinal carcinoma that is resistant to treatment.


degenerative myopia

description: Excessive axial myopia associated with complications (especially posterior staphyloma and choroidal neovascularization) that can lead to blindness.


fibrochondrogenesis 2

description: Any fibrochondrogenesis in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the COL11A2 gene.


cellular response to silicon dioxide

description: Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a silicon dioxide stimulus.


Advanced Kidney Carcinoma

description: Kidney carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Advanced Renal Pelvis Urothelial Carcinoma

description: Renal pelvis urothelial carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Kidney Medullary Carcinoma

description: Kidney medullary carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


Advanced Renal Pelvis Carcinoma

description: Renal pelvis carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


dehydrated hereditary stomatocytosis 2

description: Any dehydrated hereditary stomatocytosis in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the KCNN4 gene.


name: regulation of establishment of bipolar cell polarity regulating cell shape

description: Any process that modulates the rate, frequency or extent of the establishment of bipolar cell polarity that contributes to the shape of a cell.


name: positive regulation of establishment of bipolar cell polarity regulating cell shape

description: Any process that increases the rate, frequency or extent of the establishment of bipolar cell polarity that regulates the shape of a cell.


olfactory placode maturation

description: A developmental process, independent of morphogenetic (shape) change, that is required for the olfactory placode to attain its fully functional state. The olfactory placode is a thickening of the neural ectoderm in the head region of the vertebrate embryo which develops into the olfactory region of the nasal cavity.


sesamoid bone of pes

description: A sesamoid bone that is part of a pes.


pisiform

description: A laterally positioned sesamoid bone found in close proximity with and occasionally fused to the ulnare.


patella

description: A large sesamoid bone found in the distal femur/proximal tibial region of the hindlimb of tetrapods. The patella is the attachment site for proximal hindlimb tendons.[PHENOSCAPE:ad].


equine distal sesamoid

description: Lies on the palmar aspect of the coffin joint between the second phalanx and third phalanx. articulates closely with the distal phalanx, to which it is connected by the impar ligament of the navicular bone. The impar ligament is very strong and permits relatively little motion between the navicular bone and the distal phalanx.


radial sesamoid

description: In the giant panda, a large digitlike preaxial element that articulates with the scapholunatum and the medial border of the first metacarpal.


name: sesamoid bone of the peroneus longus muscle


intertarsale sesamoid

description: Sesamoid bone in the tarsal region.


subarticular sesamoid

description: Is an endochondral structure located on the ventral to the junction between, in the hand, the metacarpal and most proximal phalanx of the digit and between phalanges, and in the foot between the metatarsal and most proximal phalanx of the digit and between phalanges. Typically subarticular sesamoids are found with the subarticular tubercles.


sesamoid bone of manus

description: A sesamoid bone that is part of a manus.


sesamoid bone of gastrocnemius

description: A small sesamoid bone situated behind a condyle of the femur.


Abdominal Migraine

description: Paroxysmal episodes of intense, acute periumbilical pain that lasts for one or more hours with intervening periods of usual health lasting weeks to months, with no evidence of an inflammatory, anatomic, metabolic, or neoplastic process that explains the symptoms. The pain interferes with normal activities and is associated with at least two of the following symptoms: anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, photophobia, and/or pallor.


name: leukoencephalopathy with mild cerebellar ataxia and white matter edema

description: An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CLCN2 gene, encoding chloride channel protein 2. It is characterized by variable clinical features including mild cerebellar ataxia, chorioretinopathy, visual field defects, and headaches. A characteristic pattern of white matter abnormalities is evident on MRI.


name: negative regulation of platelet formation

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of platelet formation.


carboxylesterase activity

description: Catalysis of the reaction: a carboxylic ester + H2O = a carboxylate + an alcohol + H+.


Lewy neurite

description: Elongated neuronal process, often with side branches and more than one branching point, described in brains of patients with Parkinson's disease. Lewy neurites stain positively for ubiquitin in brainstem and forebrain regions affected in Parkinson's disease.


all-trans-retinal

A retinal in which all four exocyclic double bonds have E- (trans-) geometry.


name: positive regulation of exodeoxyribonuclease activity

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of exodeoxyribonuclease activity.


starch catabolic process

description: The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of starch, the most important reserve polysaccharide in plants.


cellular bud neck septin collar

description: A tubular structure with flared ends, shaped like an hourglass and composed of highly ordered arrays of septin filaments, that forms at the bud neck of a dividing cell. In S. cerevisiae, this structure is located at the bud neck throughout most of the cell cycle and the septins are fixed within the structure, not exchanging with soluble septins. This septin structure acts as a scaffold for other proteins that function at the bud neck.


tyrosinemia type II

description: Tyrosinemia type 2 is an inborn error of tyrosine metabolism characterized by hypertyrosinemia with oculocutaneous manifestations and, in some cases, intellectual deficit.


tyrosinemia

description: An autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the FAH, HPD, and TAT genes. It is characterized by deficiency of one of the enzymes that are involved in the metabolism of tyrosine. It results in elevated blood tyrosine levels and accumulation of tyrosine and its byproducts in the liver, kidney, nervous system and other organs.


tyrosinemia type I

description: Tyrosinemia type 1 (HTI) is an inborn error of tyrosine catabolism caused by defective activity of fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (FAH) and is characterized by progressive liver disease, renal tubular dysfunction, porphyria-like crises and a dramatic improvement in prognosis following treatment with nitisinone.


tyrosinemia type III

description: Tyrosinemia type 3 is an inborn error of tyrosine metabolism characterized by mild hypertyrosinemia and increased urinary excretion of 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate, 4-hydroxyphenyllactate and 4-hydroxyphenylacetate.


transient tyrosinemia of the newborn

description: A benign disorder of tyrosine metabolism detected upon newborn screening and often observed in premature infants. It shows no clinical symptoms. It is characterized by tyrosinemia, moderate hyperphenylalaninemia, and tyrosiluria that usually resolve after 2 months of age.


name: Stage IIA Adult Soft Tissue Sarcoma AJCC v7


Stage IIA Soft Tissue Sarcoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IIA includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G2, G3); (T1b, N0, M0, G2, G3).  T1a: Superficial tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1b: Deep tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G2: Grade 2.  G3: Grade 3. (AJCC 7th ed.)


amastigogenesis

description: The morphological, biochemical and genetic changes that induce the differentiation of metacyclic parasites into amastigotes in some of the Trypanosomatidae species such as Leishmania parasites and Trypanosoma cruzi. This process occurs inside the cells of the mammalian hosts, particularly in macrophages and other phagocytic cells for Leishmania parasites.


respiratory tract epithelium

description: The pseudostratified ciliated epithelium that lines much of the conducting portion of the airway, including part of the nasal cavity and larynx, the trachea, and bronchi.


epithelium of right lung

description: An epithelium that is part of a right lung [Automatically generated definition].


terminal bronchus epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a terminal bronchus [Automatically generated definition].


nasal fin

description: The nasal fin is an epithelial seam that develops by fusion between the epithelial linings of the medial and lateral nasal swellings. Shortly after its formation the nasal fin regresses and is replaced by mesenchyme, with exception of its most posterior portion which remains as the bucconasal membrane.


name: pseudostratified smooth columnar epithelium


epithelium of main bronchus

description: An epithelium that is part of a main bronchus [Automatically generated definition].


lung endothelium

description: A blood vessel endothelium that is part of a lung [Automatically generated definition].


endothelium of trachea

description: An endothelium that is part of a trachea.


larynx epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a larynx [Automatically generated definition].


right lung accessory lobe epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a right lung accessory lobe.


alveolar secondary septum

description: A secondary alveolar septum is a specialized epithelium that subdivides the initial saccule[GO].


right lung endothelium

description: An endothelium that is part of a right lung.


left lung endothelium

description: An endothelium that is part of a left lung.


terminal bronchiole epithelium

description: An epithelium that lines a terminal bronchiole.


epithelium of lobar bronchus

description: The tissue made up of epithelial cells that lines the inside of the lobar bronchus.


pulmonary alveolus epithelium

description: The epithelial layer of the alveoli[MP]. The layer of cells covering the lining of the tiny air sacs at the end of the bronchioles[BTO].


left lung lobar bronchus epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a lobar bronchus of left lung.


right lung accessory lobe endothelium

description: An endothelium that is part of a right lung accessory lobe.


right lung lobar bronchus epitheium

description: An epithelium that is part of a lobar bronchus of right lung.


epithelium of left lung

description: An epithelium that is part of a left lung [Automatically generated definition].


lung epithelium

description: The epithelial layer of the lung.


upper respiratory tract epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a upper respiratory tract [Automatically generated definition].


right lung caudal lobe epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a lower lobe of right lung.


lower respiratory tract epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a lower respiratory tract [Automatically generated definition].


epithelium of segmental bronchus

description: An epithelium that is part of a segmental bronchus [Automatically generated definition].


right lung cranial lobe endothelium

description: An endothelium that is part of a upper lobe of right lung.


right lung caudal lobe endothelium

description: An endothelium that is part of a lower lobe of right lung.


olfactory epithelium

description: A sensory epithelium inside the nasal cavity that is responsible for detecting odors[WP].


endothelium of main bronchus

description: An endothelium that is part of a main bronchus [Automatically generated definition].


epithelium of lobular bronchiole

description: An epithelium of the lobular bronchiole.


epithelium of bronchiole

description: An epithelium that is part of a bronchiole [Automatically generated definition].


epithelium of nasopharynx

description: An epithelium that is part of a nasopharynx [Automatically generated definition].


right lung cranial lobe epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a upper lobe of right lung.


alveolar primary septum

description: A primary alveolar septum is a specialized epithelium that surrounds the saccule as it forms[GO].


alveolar sac

description: The small terminal dilation of the alveolar ducts around which the alveoli form pocket-like clusters.


nasal cavity epithelium

description: An epithelium that lines the nasal cavity.


epithelium of respiratory bronchiole

description: An epithelium that is part of a respiratory bronchiole [Automatically generated definition].


tracheobronchial epithelium

description: Epithelium pertaining to the trachea and bronchi.


Medulloblastoma, SHH-2

description: Medulloblastoma, SHH-activated, characterized by chromosome 9q loss and nodular morphology. It affects mostly infants.


Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2A1

description: Autosomal dominant Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2A1 (CMT2A1) is a form of axonal Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, a peripheral sensorimotor neuropathy. CMT2A presents with a more prominent muscle weakness in lower than upper limbs and frequent postural tremor.


Sarcoma NCI Grade 3

description: A sarcoma with more than 15% necrosis.


Kaposi Sarcoma NCI Grade 3

description: A Kaposi sarcoma with more than 15% necrosis.


Epithelioid Sarcoma NCI Grade 3

description: An epithelioid sarcoma with more than 15% necrosis.


Angiosarcoma NCI Grade 3

description: An angiosarcoma with more than 15% necrosis.


Leiomyosarcoma NCI Grade 3

description: A leiomyosarcoma with more than 15% necrosis.


uncoating of virus

description: The process by which an incoming virus is disassembled in the host cell to release a replication-competent viral genome.


description: Catalysis of the hydrolysis of the alpha-(1->3) bonds of alpha-D-mannose residues in mannosyl-oligosaccharide.


name: digestive duplication cyst of the tongue

description: Digestive duplication cyst of the tongue is an extremely rare otorhinolaryngological malformation which occurs during early embryogenesis and is characterized by a single, and on occasion multiple, cystic lesion that is most frequently located in the anterior portion of the tongue, either deeply embedded within it or superficially on it. Depending mostly on size and location of the cyst, patients could be asymptomatic or could present a wide array of symptoms, such as varying degrees of respiratory and feeding difficulties, lingual swelling and protrusion, dysphagia, and more rarely, recurrent bleeding or brownish discharge from a lingual sinus.


Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage II

description: Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associated atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumor nodule(s) in the same lobe. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma by AJCC v7 Stage

description: A term that refers to the staging of adenosquamous lung carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system.


name: Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage III

description: Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage I

description: Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage IV

description: Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Stage IA Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Stage 0 Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7

description: Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)


name: Stage IIB Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associated atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumor nodule(s) in the same lobe. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Stage IIA Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus).  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage IIIB

description: Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Stage IB Lung Adenosquamous Carcinoma AJCC v7

description: Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


name: Adenosquamous cell lung cancer stage IIIA

description: Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary lymph nodes, including involvement by direct extension.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)


lethal osteosclerotic bone dysplasia

description: Generalized osteosclerosis with periosteal bone formation, characteristic facial dysmorphism, brain abnormalities including intracerebral calcifications, and neonatal lethal course.


Conjunctival Subepithelial Nevus

description: A conjunctival nevus characterized by an intrastromal proliferation of predominantly type B nevus cells.


name: glial cell-derived neurotrophic factor receptor signaling pathway involved in ureteric bud formation

category: biolink:Pathway biolink:OntologyClass biolink:BiologicalProcess biolink:Occurrent biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

description: The series of molecular signals generated as a consequence of a glial cell-derived neurotrophic factor receptor binding to one of its physiological ligands that contributes to the formation of the ureteric bud from the Wolffian duct.


GDF15-GFRAL signaling pathway

description: The series of molecular signals initiated by GDF15 binding to GFRAL coreceptor, triggering RET autophosphorylation and activation, in response to stress.


reticular layer of dermis

description: The thicker, deeper layer of the dermis, comprised of criss-crossing collagen fibers that form a strong elastic network and also containing blood and lymph vessels, nerves and nerve endings, and hair follicles.


Bethlem myopathy

description: A usually autosomal dominant inherited movement disorder caused by mutations in the COL6A1, COL6A2, and COL6A3 genes. It is characterized by progressive muscle weakness and joint stiffness in the fingers, wrists, elbows, and ankles.


RHYNS syndrome

description: RHYNS syndrome is characterized by the association of retinitis pigmentosa, hypopituitarism, nephronophthisis, and skeletal dysplasia.


name: isolated focal cortical dysplasia type Ib


name: isolated focal cortical dysplasia type I


name: isolated focal cortical dysplasia type Ia


name: isolated focal cortical dysplasia type Ic


polyenoic fatty acid isomerase activity

description: Catalysis of the reaction: all-cis-icosa-5,8,11,14,17-pentaenoate = (5Z,7E,9E,14Z,17Z)-icosapentaenoate.


episodic kinesigenic dyskinesia

description: Paroxysmal kinesigenic dyskinesia (PKD) is a form of paroxysmal dyskinesia, characterized by recurrent brief involuntary hyperkinesias, such as choreoathetosis, ballism, athetosis or dystonia, triggered by sudden movements.


name: childhood onset GLUT1 deficiency syndrome 2

description: A form of paroxysmal dyskinesia, characterized by painless attacks of dystonia of the extremities triggered by prolonged physical activities.


episodic kinesigenic dyskinesia 1

description: An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the PRRT2 gene, encoding proline-rich transmembrane protein 2. It is characterized by dyskinesia triggered by sudden movement. It shares features with infantile convulsions and paroxysmal choreoathetosis, familial. It is an allelic disorder.


name: infantile convulsions and choreoathetosis

description: A neurological condition characterized by the occurrence of seizures during the first year of life (Benign familial infantile epilepsy) and choreoathetotic dyskinetic attacks during childhood or adolescence.


paroxysmal nonkinesigenic dyskinesia 1

description: Paroxysmal nonkinesigenic dyskinesia in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the PNKD gene.


episodic kinesigenic dyskinesia 2

description: A dystonia characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance of recurrent brief involuntary hyperkinesias triggered by sudden movements that has material basis in variation in the chromosome region 16q13-q22.1.


paroxysmal nonkinesigenic dyskinesia 2

description: A dystonia characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance of attacks of dystonic or choreathetotic movements precipitated by stress, fatigue, coffee or alcohol intake or menstruation that has material basis in variation in the chromosome region 2q31.


paroxysmal nonkinesigenic dyskinesia

description: Paroxysmal non-kinesigenic dyskinesia (PNKD) is a form of paroxysmal dyskinesia, characterized by attacks of dystonic or choreathetotic movements precipitated by stress, fatigue, coffee or alcohol intake or menstruation.


name: benign paroxysmal torticollis of infancy

description: Benign paroxysmal torticollis of infancy (BPTI) is a rare functional disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of torticollic posturing of the head (inclination or tilting of the head to one side) in healthy children.


dystonia 9

description: A dystonia characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance of paroxysmal choreoathetosis and progressive spastic paraplegia, episodes are often precipitated by alcohol, fatigue, or emotional stress that has material basis in heterozygous mutation in the SLC2A1 gene on chromosome 1p34.


ECHS1-related paroxysmal dyskinesia

description: A paroxysmal dyskinesia which manifest as dystonic movements brought on by sustained exercise, that is correlated with a deficiency in the gene ECHS1 (caused by a missence mutation). Onset is typically between age two and four years.


name: 8-methylthiopropyl glucosinolate S-oxygenase activity

description: Catalysis of the reaction: 8-methylthiopropyl-glucosinolate = 8-methylsulfinylpropyl-glucosinolate.


name: anterior lateral line neuromast development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the anterior lateral line neuromast over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The neuromast is the sensory receptor of the anterior lateral line system and is composed of a population of sensory hair cells, and nonsensory supporting cells and mantle cells. Neuromast are located superficially on the epithelium or in lateral line canals.


Cervical Rhabdomyoma

description: A rare benign skeletal muscle neoplasm arising from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of small nucleated rhabdomyoblasts within a fibrous and myxoid stroma.


Benign Cervical Soft Tissue Neoplasm

description: A rare benign mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the cervix.


Cervical Leiomyoma

description: An uncommon benign smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the cervix.


name: Metastatic Prostate Neuroendocrine Carcinoma

description: A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland and has spread to other anatomic sites.


name: Metastatic Prostate Small Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma

description: Prostate small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site.


name: Advanced Prostate Small Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma

description: Prostate small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Locally Advanced Prostate Neuroendocrine Carcinoma

description: A prostate neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes.


vitamin D3 catabolic process

description: The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of vitamin D3.


sporangium germination

description: The physiological, developmental and morphological changes that occur in a symbiont sporangium following release from dormancy up to the earliest signs of growth. A sporangium is a structure producing and containing spores.


vitamin D5 metabolic process

description: The chemical reactions and pathways involving vitamin D5, (1S,3Z)-3-[(2E)-2-[(1R,3aS,7aR)-1-[(1R,4S)-4-ethyl-1,5-dimethylhexyl]-7a-methyl-2,3,3a,5,6,7-hexahydro-1H-inden-4-ylidene]ethylidene]-4-methylene-1-cyclohexanol.


central nervous system mature teratoma

description: A teratoma composed exclusively of fully differentiated, 'adult-type' tissue elements that are sometimes arranged in a pattern resembling normal tissue relationships. Mitotic activity is low or absent. The more common ectodermal components present in a mature teratoma include skin, brain and choroid plexus. The more common mesodermal components include cartilage, bone, fat and muscle (both smooth and striated). And the most common endodermal components are cysts lined by epithelia of respiratory or enteric type and in some cases pancreatic or hepatic tissue. (Adapted from WHO)


extragonadal germ cell tumor

description: A germ cell tumor arising in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary (e.g., central nervous system, lung, mediastinum, and retroperitoneum).


name: adult central nervous system germ cell tumor

description: A germ cell tumor of the central nervous system occurring in adults.


name: adult central nervous system immature teratoma


brain germinoma

description: A germinoma (disease) that involves the brain.


central nervous system germ cell tumor

description: A unique group of rare tumors of the central nervous system that affect mainly children and adolescents. Their morphologic and biologic profile corresponds to that of homologous germ cell tumors that arise in the gonads and in other extragonadal sites. Representative examples include: germinoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, and teratoma.


adult central nervous system germinoma

description: A central nervous system germinoma that occurs in an adult.


gestational choriocarcinoma

description: Gestational choriocarcinoma is a gestational trophoblastic tumor (GTT) occurring secondary to pregnancy (ectopic or normal), miscarriage, voluntary termination of pregnancy (VTP) or a hydatidiform mole.


name: adult central nervous system embryonal carcinoma

description: A embryonal carcinoma of the central nervous system that occurs in an adult.


polyembryoma of the ovary

description: A rare, malignant germ cell tumor arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of embryoid bodies which resemble early embryos.


testicular embryonal carcinoma

description: A malignant germ cell neoplasm arising from the testis. It is composed of primitive epithelial cells arranged in solid, papillary, and glandular configurations. Most patients present with a testicular mass, which may be associated with pain. More than half of the patients have metastatic disease at diagnosis. The form of treatment following radical orchiectomy is stage dependent.


name: testicular yolk sac tumor, solid pattern

description: A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of aggregates of polygonal malignant cells with clear cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli.


childhood ovarian yolk sac tumor

description: A yolk sac tumor that arises from the ovary and occurs in children.


pineal region choriocarcinoma

description: A choriocarcinoma (disease) that involves the pineal body.


name: central nervous system immature teratoma

description: A variant of teratoma composed of incompletely differentiated components resembling fetal tissues. Even if the immature component is only a minor element of an otherwise differentiated teratoma, the tumor is still classified as immature. (Adapted from WHO)


ovarian yolk sac tumor

description: A usually rapidly growing malignant germ cell tumor arising from the ovary. It usually occurs in children and adolescents. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain and a large abdominal or pelvic mass. The serum alpha-fetoprotein is almost always elevated preoperatively. Morphologically, there is marked heterogeneity due to numerous patterns of differentiation coexisting in the same tumor. The most common pattern is reticular.


mediastinal malignant germ cell tumor

description: An extragonadal malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. This category includes seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, mixed germ cell tumors, and immature malignant teratoma.


adult central nervous system teratoma

description: A mature or immature teratoma affecting the central nervous system and occurring in adults.


gestational ovarian choriocarcinoma

description: A rare malignant trophoblastic tumor that arises from the ovary as a result of ectopic ovarian pregnancy. There is no germ cell component present.


name: choriocarcinoma of the central nervous system

description: A malignant germ cell tumor of the central nervous system characterized by extra-embryonic differentiation along trophoblastic lines. The diagnosis requires the identification of cytotrophoblastic elements, as well as syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells. (WHO)


mediastinal yolk sac tumor

description: An extragonadal non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. It is characterized by the presence of small pale cells with small amount of cytoplasm and round to oval nuclei with small nucleoli forming a variety of patterns, including microcystic, macrocystic, pseudopapillary, myxomatous, hepatoid, polyvesicular vitelline, and solid. It manifests with respiratory distress, thoracic pain, fever, and superior vena cava syndrome.


yolk sac tumor

description: A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor composed of primitive germ cells. It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in the pediatric population. It occurs in the infant testis, ovary, sacrococcygeal region, vagina, uterus, prostate, abdomen, liver, retroperitoneum, thorax, and pineal/third ventricle. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Treatment includes: surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. This tumor is very responsive to chemotherapy regimens that include cisplatinum.


pineal region dysgerminoma

description: A dysgerminoma (disease) that involves the pineal body.


malignant cardiac germ cell tumor

description: A rare malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the pericardium.


malignant teratoma of mediastinum

description: A malignant teratoma that involves the mediastinum.


mediastinal germ cell tumor

description: A germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. Representative examples include seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, and mixed germ cell tumor.


name: polyvesicular vitelline pattern testicular yolk sac tumor

description: A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of collections of vesicles that are surrounded by connective tissue.


name: yolk sac tumor of central nervous system

description: A malignant germ cell tumor of the central nervous system composed of primitive-appearing epithelial cells - putatively representing yolk sac endoderm - set in a loose, variably cellular, and often conspicuously myxoid matrix, resembling extra-embryonic mesoblast. Eosinophilic hyaline globules immunoreactive for AFP are a diagnostic feature. (WHO)


name: childhood central nervous system embryonal carcinoma

description: An embryonal carcinoma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood.


immature extragonadal teratoma

description: An immature teratoma that develops as a primary tumor in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary.


pineal region germinoma

description: A germinoma that arises from the pineal gland.


name: extragonadal non-dysgerminomatous germ cell tumor


embryonal carcinoma

description: A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of large germ cells with abundant cytoplasm resembling epithelial cells, geographic necrosis, high mitotic activity, and pseudoglandular and pseudopapillary structures formation. It can arise from the testis, ovary, and extragonadal sites (central nervous system and mediastinum).


adult yolk sac tumor

description: A yolk sac tumor that occurs in an adult.


name: reticular pattern testicular yolk sac tumor

description: A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of a meshwork of small vacuolated cells resulting in a honeycomb appearance.


childhood embryonal testis carcinoma

description: An embryonal carcinoma that arises from the testis during childhood.


name: testicular yolk sac tumor, myxomatous pattern

description: A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of myxomatous tissue that contains collections of malignant cells with prominent nucleoli.


name: ovarian yolk sac tumor, glandular pattern

description: A yolk sac tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of extensive differentiation into endodermal type glandular structures.


spinal cord dermoid cyst

description: A dermoid cyst that involves the spinal cord.


malignant peritoneal germ cell tumor

description: A malignant germ cell tumor that affects the peritoneum.


name: testicular yolk sac tumor, macrocystic pattern

description: A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of collections of thin-walled spaces.


name: testicular yolk sac tumor, endodermal sinus pattern

description: A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of connective tissue stalks that contain a blood vessel and are lined by cells with clear cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli.


central nervous system germinoma

description: A malignant germ cell tumor arising from the central nervous system. It is composed of uniform cells resembling primitive germ cells. These cells have large, vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli and a clear, glycogen-rich cytoplasm. Additional features are lymphoid or lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates and, less frequently, scattered syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells. (Adapted from WHO)


name: malignant pineal area germ cell neoplasm

description: A malignant germ cell tumor that arises in the pineal region. Representative examples include germinoma, immature teratoma, choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma and yolk sac tumor.


testicular yolk sac tumor

description: A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor arising from the testis. It affects infants, young children, and postpubertal males. It is the most frequently seen testicular neoplasm during childhood. The vast majority of patients present with an asymptomatic scrotal mass. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). It metastasizes to distant anatomic sites. Prognostic factors relate to the clinical stage and the degree of AFP elevation.