name: Blasts 20 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 20 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Alloimmune platelet transfusion refractoriness

category: biolink:Disease biolink:DiseaseOrPhenotypicFeature biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing

description: An indication that platelet counts were not increased following one or more transfusions.


name: Lymphoblasts 1 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

category: biolink:PhenotypicFeature biolink:DiseaseOrPhenotypicFeature biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 1 percent or more of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of lymphoid origin.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells 10 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Blasts 10-20 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 10 and 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts Under 30 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 30 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Neoplastic Promonocytes in Bone Marrow Markedly Increased

description: An indication that the number of neoplastic promonocytes in a bone marrow sample have sharply increased when compared to a normal baseline or a previous sample measurement.


name: Blasts Under 15 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 15 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Immature Granulocytes in Peripheral Blood Under 10 Percent

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 10 percent of the cells in a peripheral blood sample are immature granulocytes.


name: Monoclonal B-Lymphocytes More Than 5 x 10^9/L in Peripheral Blood

description: A finding indicating the presence of more than 5 x 10^9/L monoclonal B-lymphocytes in peripheral blood.


name: Myeloblasts Under 20 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating less than 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Blasts More than 15 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 15 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Bone Marrow Blasts Decreased by 50 Percent or More Compared to Pretreatment Level

description: A semiquantitative finding indicating that the amount of immature mononuclear cells in a subject's sample of nucleated cells from bone marrow has decreased by 50 percent or more over the value recorded for a pretreatment sample from that subject.


name: Fetal Circulation with Increased Nucleated Erythrocytes

description: Increased nucleated red blood cells within the fetal circulation.


name: Blasts 1 Percent or More of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 1 percent or more of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 5 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A microscopic finding indicating the presence of blasts constituting at least 5% of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow aspirate.


name: Blasts Expressing B-Lymphoid, T-Lymphoid, and Myeloid Markers Present

description: A finding indicating the presence of blasts with evidence of trilineage (B-cell, T-cell, and myeloid lineage) assignment.


name: Ring Sideroblasts Under 15 Percent of Erythroid Precursors

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating less than 15 percent of the cells in a sample of erythroid precursor cells are ring sideroblasts.


name: Immature Myeloid Cells Increased in Bone Marrow

description: An increased number of myeloid precursors in the bone marrow.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells More than 50 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 50 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Blasts 10-19 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 10 and 19 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Myeloblasts Under 1 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating less than 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral blood sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells More than 20 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Cells of Monocytic Lineage 80 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Leukemic Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 80 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample from a subject with leukemia are from the mononcyte lineage.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells 5 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Myeloblasts Under 10 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Blasts More than 10000 of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 10000 of the total number of nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: T-Cells Absent, T-Cell Receptor Signaling Defective and Natural Killer Cells and B-Cells Normal

description: A hematology test result indicating that a subject has a normal amount of B-cells and natural killer cells but T-cells are absent or found at abnormally low amounts and a defect in T-cell receptor signaling pathways has been observed.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells Under 5 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 5 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Blasts 10-19 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 10 and 19 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Bone Marrow Basophilia

description: A finding indicating abnormally high levels of basophils in a bone marrow sample.


name: Blasts 5 Percent or More of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5 percent or more of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Activated B-Cell Positive

description: An indication that actively proliferating and differentiating B-lymphocytes have been detected in a sample.


name: Blasts Less than 0.01 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 0.01 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 50 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that greater than or equal to 50 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 9 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 9 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Dual Population of Bone Marrow Blasts Present

description: An indication that immature hematopoetic cells from two lineages were detected in a bone marrow sample.


name: Myeloblasts 90 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Non-Erythroid Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 90 percent of the non-erythroid nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


Normoblastic Erythroid Hyperplasia

description: A laboratory test result indicating an abnormally high quantity of immature red blood cells containing hemoglobin and a pyknotic nucleus.


Mild to Moderate Anisopoikilocytosis

description: A test result indicating a mild to moderate degree of anisopoikilocytosis in the peripheral blood.


name: Myeloblasts 10 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Blasts 0.01 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 0.01 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Circulating Blasts 4-9 Percent

description: A laboratory test result indicating that 4-9 percent of the cells in a peripheral blood sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts Greater than or Equal to 5000 per mL

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that immature mononuclear cells are found at greater than or equal to 5000 per milliliter in a sample.


name: Mast Cells 20 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are mast cells.


name: Blasts More Than 5 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 5 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Monoblasts 20 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononcytes.


name: Blasts 30 Percent or Less of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 30 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Lymphoblasts More than 10 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of lymphoid origin.


name: Blasts Under 20 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 10 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at most 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Myeloblasts Under 2 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating less than 2 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral blood sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Bone Marrow Dysplasia Present in 50 Percent or More of the Cells of Two Cell Lines

description: An indication that signs of dysplasia were detected in at least 50 percent of the cells from two hematopoietic cell lineages in a bone marrow sample


name: Myeloblasts Under 10 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating less than 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Blasts Under 5 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 5 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts Under 5 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 5 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: T-Cells and Natural Killer Cells Absent B-Cells Normal

description: A hematology test result indicating that a subject has a normal amount of B-cells but both T-cells and natural killer cells are either absent or found at abnormally low amounts.


Hemolysis

description: Disruption of the integrity of the erythrocyte membrane causing release of hemoglobin.


name: Immature Granulocytes in Peripheral Blood Increased

description: The presence of an increased number of granulocytic leukocytes, indicating an early-stage response to infection, inflammation, or neoplastic process.


name: Blasts 6-25 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 6 and 25 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Lymphoblasts 5 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of lymphoid origin.


name: Blasts 5-20 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 5 and 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Lymphoblasts 20 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 20 percent or more of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of lymphoid origin.


name: Atypical Lymphocytes Present in Peripheral Blood

description: A variation of lymphocytes found in a peripheral blood smear that are larger, with abundant cytoplasm, and having nuclei with multiple nucleoli.


Chronic idiopathic neutropenia

description: A rare hematologic disorder characterized by neutropenia lasting more than three months with no identifiable cause.


name: Blasts 0 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that immature mononuclear cells are not detected when the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample were examined.


Platelet Count 50000

description: Indicates a platelet count of at least 50,000 per cubic millimeter.


name: Hypereosinophilia of Undetermined Significance

description: An interim diagnosis made during the evaluation of persistent peripheral eosinophilia in asymptomatic patients that demonstrate no clinical signs of end-organ dysfunction.


name: gp100:154-162-Reactive Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes Present

description: A laboratory test result indicating that lymphocytes reactive to amino acids 154 through 162 of the melanocyte protein PMEL (gp100) were detected in a sample.


Neonatal neutropenia (disorder)

description: A condition characterized by a decrease in the number of neutrophils in the blood below established reference ranges in a newborn.


name: Blasts 5-30 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 5 and 30 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Megakaryocytes Increased in Bone Marrow

description: A laboratory test result indicating abnormally high numbers of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells Under 10 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


Clonal Plasma Cells in Bone Marrow

description: A finding indicating that clonal plasma cells have been detected in a bone marrow sample.


name: Blasts 2-4 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 2 and 4 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 5-25 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 5 and 25 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts More Than 75 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that greater than 75 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 1 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 1 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Myeloblasts 10-19 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 10 and 19 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Myeloblasts More than 5 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 5 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Lymphoblasts 5-25 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 5 and 25 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of lymphoid origin.


name: Blasts Under 30 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 30 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Mast Cells 10 Percent or More of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are mast cells.


myelophthisic anemia

description: A laboratory test result indicating an abnormal amount of circulating nucleated red blood cells and immature red blood cells.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells Present in Bone Marrow

description: A finding indicating that neoplastic plasma cells were detected in a bone marrow sample.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells 20 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 20 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Blasts 21-30 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 21-30 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Lymphoblasts 5 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5 percent or more of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of lymphoid origin.


name: Myeloblasts 5-19 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5-19 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: CD5-Positive Blast Cells Greater than 50 Percent

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 50% of the immature blood cells in a sample express CD5.


name: Blasts More than 25 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 25 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells 5 Percent or More of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 5 percent of the leukocytes in a peripheral blood sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Blasts 20,000 or Less of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 20,000 or fewer nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts More than 5 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 5 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts Under 10 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts Less Than 50 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 50 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Severe Myelosuppression

description: Severe reduction of bone marrow function secondary to drug treatment. It results in anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia.


Platelet Count 20000

description: Indicates a platelet count of at least 20,000 per cubic millimeter.


name: Prolymphocytes Exceed 55 Percent of Lymphoid Cells in the Peripheral Blood

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 55 percent of the lymphoid cells in a peripheral blood sample are prolymphocytes.


Peripheral Blood Basophilia

description: A finding indicating abnormally high levels of basophils in a peripheral blood sample.


name: Myeloblasts 5 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5 percent or more of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: T-Cells and B-Cells Absent and Natural Killer Cells Normal

description: A hematology test result indicating that a subject has a normal amount of natural killer cells but B-cells and T-cells are either absent or found at abnormally low amounts.


name: Blasts 15 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at most 15 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Decrease in Blasts

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that the amount of immature mononuclear cells in a sample from a certain subject has decreased when compared to a prior sample from the same subject.


name: Lymphoblasts Less than 5 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 5 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of lymphoid origin.


Granulocytes Increased in Bone Marrow

description: An indication that the number of granulocytes in a bone marrow sample have increased when compared to a normal baseline or a previous sample measurement.


name: Myeloblasts Under 5 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 5 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Blasts 2 Percent or More of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 2 percent or more of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Blast Cells Present

description: A laboratory test result indicating the presence of blast cells in a blood sample.


name: Blasts 6 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 6 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts Under 15 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 15 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 50 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 50 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: T-Cells, B-Cells and Natural Killer Cells Absent

description: A hematology test result indicating that a subject's T-cells, B-cells and natural killer cells are either absent or found at abnormally low amounts.


Bi-Cytopenia

description: A deficiency of two of the three blood cell lineages; erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets.


name: Blasts 20 Percent or Less of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 20 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Benign ethnic neutropenia

description: Chronic neutropenia in the absence of secondary causes, other cytopenia, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, or increased risk of infection. It occurs more frequently in individuals of African, Middle Eastern, and West Indian descent.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells 10-60 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 10 and 60 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells Under 5 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 5 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Erythroid Precursors 80 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 80 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature cells of the erythroid lineage.


name: Blasts 5 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells Between 20 and 50 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 20 and 50 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Atypical Lymphocytes Present in Bone Marrow

description: A finding indicating that atypical lymphocytes were detected in a bone marrow sample.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells Under 50 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 50 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Blasts 25 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 25 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells 60 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 60 percent or more of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Blasts More than 20 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 60 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 60 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells More than 30 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 30 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Neoplastic Promyelocytes in Bone Marrow Markedly Increased


Bone Marrow Test Result

description: The results of a bone marrow test.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells 10-59 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 10 and 59 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Myeloblasts 1 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A microscopic finding indicating that 1 percent of the white cells in a peripheral blood sample are myeloblasts.


name: Hemoglobinuria due to hemolysis from external causes

description: Hemoglobin in the urine that is due to hemolysis from an external cause.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells Under 20 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


Aberrant Clonal Plasma Cell Population

description: A population of plasma cells which display atypical morphological features, an abnormal immunophenotypic profile, and molecular genetic characteristics of clonality (monoclonality).


Blasts Less than or Equal to 10000/mm3

description: A quantitative microscopic finding indicating that immature mononuclear cells are found at less than or equal to 10000 per cubic millimeter field in a sample.


Erythroid Series Cells Decreased

description: A morphologic finding indicating the presence of a decreased number of erythroid cells in the bone marrow.


name: Blasts Expressing B-Lymphoid and T-Lymphoid Markers Present

description: A finding indicating the presence of blasts with evidence of both B-cell and T-cell lineage assignment.


Chemotherapy Related Agranulocytosis

description: Agranulocytosis that occurs with chemotherapy.


name: Blasts 0.1 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 0.1 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts Expressing B-Lymphoid and Myeloid Markers Present

description: An indication that immature hematopoetic cells expressing B-lymphoid and myeloid markers were detected in a sample.


Peripheral Blood Eosinophilia

description: A finding indicating abnormally high levels of eosinophils in a peripheral blood sample.


Blasts of Mixed Phenotype Present

description: An indication that immature hematopoetic cells from two or more lineages were detected in a sample.


name: Myeloblasts 20 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Non-Erythroid Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 20 percent of the non-erythroid nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Blasts 25 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 25 percent or more of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Myeloblasts Under 20 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating less than 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Neoplastic Granulocytes and Precursors 20 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are comprised of neoplastic cells with features of the granulocyte lineage.


Basophilopenia

description: Abnormally low level of basophils in the blood.


Pancytopenia caused by medication

description: Pancytopenia caused by exposure to certain drugs.


name: Blasts 5-19 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 5 and 19 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Ineffective Hematopoiesis

description: A dysfunction in the production of blood cells, resulting in decreased numbers of mature, functioning blood cells of all lines in circulation.


name: Myeloblasts 20 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Homozygous Hemoglobin C or E, Non-Disease

description: A state in which both beta-globin alleles code for a C or E variant but which leads to such minor changes to the hemoglobin that it does not cause disease.


name: T-Cells Absent and Normal Natural Killer Cells and B-Cells

description: A hematology test result indicating that a subject has a normal amount of B-cells and natural killer cells but T-cells are either absent or found at abnormally low amounts.


Bone Marrow Dysplasia Present

description: A laboratory test result indicating abnormal bone marrow cells.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells Between 10 and 30 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 10 and 30 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Blasts 75 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 75 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Erythroid Precursors 50 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 50 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature cells of the erythroid lineage.


name: Ring Sideroblasts 15 Percent or More of Erythroid Precursors

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating 15 percent or more of the cells in a sample of erythroid precursor cells are ring sideroblasts.


name: Blasts 30,000 or Less of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 30,000 or fewer nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Myeloblasts 5 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells 30 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 30 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Lymphoma Cells More than 25 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that more than 25 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are lymphoma-derived cells.


name: Blasts 11-20 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 11 and 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts Under 20 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 20 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 5 Percent or Less of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 30 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 30 percent or less of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Autoimmune cytopenia

description: Cytopenia caused by autoantibodies against the red blood cells, neutrophils, and/or platelets.


name: Markedly Elevated White Blood Cell Count Present

description: A finding indicating the presence of a markedly elevated white blood cell count in the peripheral blood.


Hypercellular Bone Marrow

description: An abnormal finding in a bone marrow aspirate or biopsy specimen indicating increased cellularity. It can result from hyperplasia of one or more hematopoietic cell lines or malignant neoplasms that affect the bone marrow.


Myeloblasts Present

description: A microscopic finding indicating the presence of immature mononuclear cells of myeloid origin in a sample.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells 40 Percent or Less of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 40 percent or less than of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


Low Leukocyte Count

description: A lower than average level of leukocytes in a sample.


name: Bone Marrow Blasts Percentage Decreased by 5 to 25 Percent

description: A semiquantitative finding indicating that the amount of immature mononuclear cells in a subject's sample of nucleated cells from bone marrow has decreased by between 5 and 25 percent from a previous percentage recorded for a sample from that subject.


name: BCR-JAK2 Fusion in Hematologic Malignancies

description: An extremely rare finding in hematologic malignancies indicating an association with BCR-JAK2 fusion gene that results from t(9;22)(p24;q11.2). Most cases exhibit chronic myelogenous leukemia-type phenotype.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells 10 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A microscopic finding indicating that 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Blasts 5-19 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5-19 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Low Natural Killer Cell Activity

description: A decrease in the ability of peripheral mononuclear blood cells to lyse MHC I deficient target cells either due to low numbers of natural killer cells, or a reduction of their lytic activity.


name: Blasts 5-10 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 5 and 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Lymphoblasts 5 Percent or More of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that 5 percent or more of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells of lymphoid origin.


name: Blasts 10 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 2 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 2 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts 1 Percent or More of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that at least 1 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Blasts Increased by Greater than or Equal to 50 Percent

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that the amount of immature mononuclear cells in a sample from a certain subject has increased by at least 50 percent over a prior sample from the same subject.


name: Blasts Under 10 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that less than 10 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are immature mononuclear cells.


name: Neoplastic Plasma Cells More than 5 Percent of Peripheral Blood White Cells

description: A microscopic finding indicating that more than 5 percent of the nucleated cells in a peripheral leukocyte sample are neoplastic plasma cells.


name: Blasts 6-19 Percent of Bone Marrow Nucleated Cells

description: A semi-quantitative microscopic finding indicating that between 6 and 19 percent of the nucleated cells in a bone marrow sample are immature mononuclear cells.


Multilineage Dysplasia Present

description: A hematologic test result indicating dysplastic changes in two or more of the myeloid cell lineages in the bone marrow.


fatty acyl-CoA reductase 1 upregulation

description: A disorder of plasmalogens biosynthesis, that is an autosomal dominant neurological disorder that results in uncontrolled synthesis of ether lipids.


fatty acyl-CoA reductase defects

description: Any disorder of plasmalogen biosynthesis in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the FAR1 gene.


name: positive regulation of microtubule minus-end binding

category: biolink:BiologicalProcess biolink:Occurrent biolink:OntologyClass biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of microtubule minus-end binding.


name: positive regulation of substance P receptor binding

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of substance P receptor binding.


name: positive regulation of cytokine activity

description: Any process that increases the rate, frequency or extent of the activity of a molecule that controls the survival, growth, differentiation and effector function of tissues and cells.


name: positive regulation of apolipoprotein binding

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of apolipoprotein binding.


name: positive regulation of low-density lipoprotein particle receptor binding

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of low-density lipoprotein particle receptor binding.


positive regulation of actin binding

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of actin binding.


name: positive regulation of actin filament binding

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of actin filament binding.


name: positive regulation of C-C chemokine binding

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of C-C chemokine binding.


name: positive regulation of heparan sulfate proteoglycan binding

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of heparan sulfate proteoglycan binding.


name: positive regulation of small GTPase binding

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of small GTPase binding.


name: positive regulation of growth hormone activity

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of growth hormone activity.


age related macular degeneration 4

description: Any age-related macular degeneration in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the CFH gene.


age related macular degeneration 13

description: An inherited susceptibility or predisposition to developing age related macular degeneration in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the CFI gene.


melioidosis

description: An infection that is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei, which is found in soil and water; symptoms vary widely, but most commonly include fever, cough, pneumonia, arthralgia, myalgia, and skin ulceration.


mitochondrial mRNA 5'-end processing

description: Any process involved in forming the mature 5' end of an mRNA molecule that derives from the mitochondrial genome.


name: negative regulation of conidium formation

description: Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of conidium formation, a process of producing non-motile spores, called conidia, via mitotic asexual reproduction in higher fungi. Conidia are haploid cells genetically identical to their haploid parent. They are produced by conversion of hyphal elements, or are borne on sporogenous cells on or within specialized structures termed conidiophores, and participate in dispersal of the fungus.


name: response to cytokinesis checkpoint signaling

description: A process that occurs in response to signals generated as a result of cytokinesis checkpoint signaling.


name: Mixed phenotype acute leukemia T/myeloid

description: A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts express T-lymphoid and myeloid lineage markers but are negative for KMT2A rearrangement and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.


category: biolink:MolecularActivity biolink:Occurrent biolink:OntologyClass biolink:BiologicalProcessOrActivity biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

description: Catalysis of the reaction: 5-hydroxy-2-oxo-4-ureido-2,5-dihydro-1H imidazole-5-carboxylate + H+ = S-allantoin + CO2.


name: Stage M1 Embryonal Tumor with Multilayered Rosettes

description: Microscopic tumor cells are detected in the cerebrospinal fluid. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)


name: negative regulation of formin-nucleated actin cable assembly

description: Any process that decreases the rate, frequency, or extent of formin-nucleated actin cable assembly. Formin-nucleated actin cable assembly is the aggregation, arrangement and bonding together of a set of components to form a formin-nucleated actin cable. A formin-nucleated actin cable is an actin filament bundle that consists of short filaments organized into bundles of uniform polarity, and is nucleated by formins.


isoamylase activity

description: Catalysis of the hydrolysis of alpha-(1,6)-D-glucosidic branch linkages in glycogen, amylopectin and their beta-limits dextrins.


subiliac lymph node

category: biolink:GrossAnatomicalStructure biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

description: A lymph node located inferior to the ilium.


middle lateral line ganglion

category: biolink:AnatomicalEntity biolink:PhysicalEssence biolink:OrganismalEntity biolink:SubjectOfInvestigation biolink:BiologicalEntity biolink:ThingWithTaxon biolink:NamedThing biolink:PhysicalEssenceOrOccurrent

description: The middle lateral line ganglion develops from a cranial ectodermal placode and contains sensory neurons that innervate the middle lateral line.


name: Prostate Acinar Adenocarcinoma, Atrophic Pattern

description: An unusual variant of acinar prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic small atrophic glands that contain malignant cells with scant cytoplasm.


ceroid lipofuscinosis, neuronal, 6A

description: A rare condition that affects the nervous system. Signs and symptoms of the condition generally develop between ages 18 months and 8 years, although later onset cases have been reported. Affected people may experience loss of muscle coordination (ataxia), seizures that do not respond to medications, muscle twitches (myoclonus), visual impairment, and developmental regression (loss of previously acquired skills). It occurs predominantly in people of Portuguese, Indian, Pakistani, or Czech ancestry. CLN6-NCL is caused by changes (mutations) in the CLN6 gene and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Treatment options are limited to therapies that can help relieve some of the symptoms.


Circular Ligament of the Tooth

description: A ligament located in the lamina propria of the marginal gingiva that encircles the tooth.


name: multiple epiphyseal dysplasia, with severe proximal femoral dysplasia

description: Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia, with severe proximal femoral dysplasia is a rare primary bone dysplasia characterized by severe, early-onset dysplasia of the proximal femurs, with almost complete absence of the secondary ossification centers and abnormal development of the femoral necks (short and broad with irregular metaphyses). It is associated with gait abnormality, mild short stature, arthralgia, joint stiffness with limited mobility of the hips and irregular acetabula, and hip and knee pain. Coxa vara and mild spinal changes are also associated.


Prostate cancer stage C

description: Tumor is clinically localized to the periprostatic area, but extends through the prostatic capsule; the seminal vesicles may be involved.


name: non-severe combined immunodeficiency due to polymerase delta deficiency

description: Any non-severe combined immunodeficiency in which the cause of the disease is variation in the POLD1/POLD2 gene.


ear neoplasm

description: A neoplasm (disease) that involves the ear.


perichondritis of auricle

description: An otitis externa involving infection of the tissue surrounding the cartilage of the earlobe (pinna), ear canal, or both. It may be caused by injury, burns, insect bites, ear piercing, or a boil on the ear. The common bacterial causative agent is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Symptoms include redness, pain, fever, swelling of the earlobe and pus accumulation between the cartilage and the layer of connective tissue around it.


name: congenital corneal opacities, cornea guttata, and corectopia


chronic eustachian salpingitis

description: Chronic form of otosalpingitis.


acute perichondritis of pinna

description: Acute form of perichondritis of auricle.


acute infection of pinna

description: An otitis externa which involves bacterial infections often related to underlying comorbidities as well as trauma. Common sources of trauma include ear piercing, boxing, blunt trauma, burns, bite wounds and iatrogenic insults. The common bacterial pathogens are staphylococcal and streptococcal species.


benign neoplasm of middle ear

description: A benign neoplasm that involves the middle ear.


autoimmune inner ear disease

description: A syndrome characterized by rapidly progressive sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL), that is often bilateral, and is potentially reversible.


space motion sickness

description: Disorder characterized by nausea, vomiting, and dizziness, possibly in response to vestibular disorientation or fluid shifts associated with space flight. (From Webster's New World Dictionary)


external ear neoplasm

description: A neoplasm (disease) that involves the external ear.


cholesteatoma of external ear

description: A cholesteatoma (disease) that involves the external ear.


polyp of middle ear

description: A benign polypoid growth in the middle ear.


acute eustachian salpingitis

description: Acute form of otosalpingitis.


chronic fungal otitis externa

description: Chronic form of otomycosis.


otomycosis

description: Fungus infection of the external ear, usually by aspergillus species


external ear lipoma

description: A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the external ear.


name: chronic tubotympanic suppurative otitis media

description: A suppurative otitis media which is an inflammatory disease of the middle ear cleft characterized by the presence of a persisting perforation within the pars tensa of the tympanic membrane, intermittent profuse muco-purulent otorrhea and gradually progressive conductive hearing loss of more than 12 weeks duration. It is caused by episodes of upper respiratory infections.


chronic tympanitis

description: Chronic form of tympanitis.


middle ear disorder

description: A disease involving the middle ear.


acute allergic mucoid otitis media

description: A blue drum syndrome caused by an allergen.


benign neoplasm of ear

description: A benign neoplasm that involves the ear.


myringitis bullosa hemorrhagica

description: A tympanic membrane disease that is characterized by blisters on the eardrum resulting from infection.


name: active cochleovestibular Meniere disease


infectious otitis media

description: Inflammation of the anatomical structures of the middle ear secondary to an infectious process. Bacterial etiology is most common, but both viral and fungal pathogens are also possible. Symptoms include erythema and edema of the tympanic membrane, pain, and possibly fever. In severe infections, inflammation and edema of the structures of the middle ear can lead to perforation of the tympanic membrane secondary to the buildup of pressure in the narrow space.


acute sanguinous otitis media

description: A acute transudative otitis media which involves bloody effusion.


middle ear neuroendocrine tumor

description: A neuroendocrine neoplasm that involves the middle ear.


noxacusis

description: Noxacusis/pain hyperacusis is characterized by individuals who experience otalgia or pain (e.g., dull ache, burning, sharp, stabbing pain and throbbing pain) in response to everyday sounds. This differs clinically from those whose primary symptom is the perception of everyday sounds as excessively loud (termed loudness hyperacusis).


inner ear cancer

description: A malignant neoplasm involving the internal ear.


benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

description: Idiopathic recurrent vertigo associated with positional nystagmus. It is associated with a vestibular loss without other neurological or auditory signs. Unlike in labyrinthitis and vestibular neuronitis inflammation in the ear is not observed.


suppurative otitis media

description: Inflammation of the middle ear with purulent discharge.


chronic perichondritis of pinna

description: Chronic form of perichondritis of auricle.


chronic non-suppurative otitis media

description: Chronic form of non-suppurative otitis media.


internal auditory canal lipoma

description: A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the internal auditory canal, often presenting as an acoustic tumor. It may be intermixed with the vestibulocochlear nerve and may adhere to adjacent structures.


non-suppurative otitis media

description: A otitis media which involves transudation of fluid in the middle ear without pus formation.


internal auditory canal meningioma

description: A meningioma that affects the internal auditory canal.


patulous eustachian tube

description: A eustachian tube disorder with a wider eustachian tube which allows a larger bolus of bacteria-laden material from the nasopharynx during an infection to enter the middle ear, causing a more fulminant infection.


acute serous otitis media

description: A acute transudative otitis media with thin, watery and sterile effusion.


chronic purulent otitis media

description: Otitis media that persists for at least six weeks, and that is associated with otorrhea through a perforated tympanic membrane.


acute transudative otitis media

description: Acute form of non-suppurative otitis media.


polyp of external auditory canal

description: A polyp that involves the external acoustic meatus.


acute allergic sanguinous otitis media

description: A acute sanguinous otitis media caused by an allergen.


external ear cancer

description: A malignant neoplasm involving the external ear.


serous glue ear

description: Chronic form of serous otitis media.


name: X-linked mixed hearing loss with perilymphatic gusher

description: X-linked mixed deafness with perilymphatic gusher, also known as X-linked deafness type 2, is a rare form of non-syndromic genetic deafnesss affecting males and characterized by pathognomonic inner ear anomalies and conductive and profound sensorineural hearing loss. The inner ear anomalies are described as dilatation of the internal auditory meatus and fistulous connection between the cochlear basal turn and internal auditory canal resulting in perilympatic gusher on attempted mobilization of a fixed stapes. Obligate female carriers may suffer from mild to moderate hearing loss.


cholesteatoma of attic

description: A cholesteatoma in the attic


cholesteatoma of middle ear

description: A non-neoplastic lesion characterized by the proliferation of keratinizing squamous epithelium in the middle ear that results in the accumulation of keratin and cells. It is usually caused by repeated infections. If left untreated, it may increase in size and destroy the adjacent delicate bones of the middle ear.


purulent acute otitis media

description: Acute form of suppurative otitis media.


acute otitis externa

description: Acute form of otitis externa.


blue drum syndrome

description: A acute transudative otitis media involving thick, viscid and mucuslike fluid effusion due to which the drum appears blue in color.


cochlear disorder

description: Pathological processes of the snail-like structure (cochlea) of the inner ear (labyrinth) which can involve its nervous tissue, blood vessels, or fluid (endolymph).


malignant otitis externa

description: An otitis externa which involves infection of the external ear that has spread to involve the skull bone containing part of the ear canal, the middle ear, and the inner ear. It is caused by the bacteria Pseudomonas. This is common in people with weakened immune systems and in older people with diabetes.


allergic otitis media

description: A otitis media (disease) with a basis in a pathological type I hypersensitivity reaction.


acute allergic serous otitis media

description: A acute serous otitis media caused by an allergen.


endolymphatic hydrops

description: An accumulation of endolymph in the inner ear (labyrinth) leading to buildup of pressure and distortion of intralabyrinthine structures, such as cochlea and semicircular canals. It is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss; tinnitus; and sometimes vertigo.


chronic atticoantral disease

description: A chronic purulent otitis media which involves perforation in the attic region (pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane) or at the posterosuperior margin, with in-growth of squamous epithelium into the middle ear. This is caused as a result of poor ventilation of the middle ear and episodes of infection.


name: malignant otitis externa caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa

description: An malignant otitis externa caused by infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa.


phacogenic glaucoma

description: Secondary glaucoma caused by either excessive size or spheric shape of the lens.


phacolytic glaucoma

description: An abnormal condition characterized by an acute autoimmune reaction of the eye. It is caused by hypersensitivity of the eye to the protein of the crystalline lens and commonly follows trauma to the crystalline lens or cataract surgery. Associated symptoms include swelling and inflammation of the eye, severe pain, and blurred vision. The substance of the lens is invaded by polymorphonuclear cells and mononuclear phagocytes. Accurate diagnosis must differentiate between this condition and infectious endophthalmitis. Therapy is supportive and commonly includes the administration of corticosteroids and atropine. Refractory cases may require surgical removal of the lens.


name: noradrenergic neuron fate commitment involved in brainstem development

description: The process in which the developmental fate of a cell becomes restricted such that it will develop into a noradrenergic neuron that is part of the brainstem.


name: lactate:proton symporter activity

description: Enables the transfer of a solute or solutes from one side of a membrane to the other according to the reaction: lactate (out) + H+ (out) = lactate (in) + H+ (in).


Colorectal Traditional Serrated Adenoma

description: An adenoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands.


Colon Traditional Serrated Adenoma

description: An adenoma that arises from the colon.  It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands.


Colorectal Filiform Serrated Adenoma

description: A traditional serrated adenoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of prominent villous projections of the neoplastic epithelium.


name: peptide cross-linking via 2-(S-L-cysteinyl)-L-phenylalanine

description: The cross-linking of a cysteine residue to an L-phenylalanine residue to form 2-(S-L-cysteinyl)-L-phenylalanine.


name: hyperuricemic nephropathy, familial juvenile type 4

description: Any familial juvenile hyperuricemic nephropathy in which the cause of the disease is a mutation in the SEC61A1 gene.


name: negative regulation of hematopoietic stem cell proliferation

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of hematopoietic stem cell proliferation.


name: negative regulation of mesenchymal stem cell proliferation

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of mesenchymal stem cell proliferation.


system development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of an organismal system over time, from its formation to the mature structure. A system is a regularly interacting or interdependent group of organs or tissues that work together to carry out a given biological process.


open tracheal system development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of an open tracheal system over time, from its formation to the mature structure. An open tracheal system is a respiratory system, a branched network of epithelial tubes that supplies oxygen to target tissues via spiracles. An example of this is found in Drosophila melanogaster.


reproductive shoot system development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of a reproductive shoot system over time, from its formation to the mature structure.


inflorescence development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of an inflorescence over time, from its formation to the mature structure.


name: electrosensory lateral line system development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the electrosensory lateral line system over time, from its formation to the mature structure.


somatic sensory system development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of a somatic sensory system over time from its formation to the mature structure. Somatic sensory system is the sensory system for the sense of touch and pain.


name: mechanosensory lateral line system development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the mechanosensory lateral line system over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The mechanosensory lateral line system consists of small sensory patches (neuromasts) located superficially on the skin or just under the skin in fluid-filled canals on the head and body of all fishes and most amphibians. The neuromasts are innervated by several lateral line nerves, which project primarily to the hindbrain. The mechanosensory lateral line system is stimulated by local water displacements and vibrations, and detects propulsion of the fish through the water, as well as facilitating shoaling, prey capture, and predator and obstacle avoidance.


flower development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the flower over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The flower is the reproductive structure in a plant, and its development begins with the transition of the vegetative or inflorescence meristem into a floral meristem.


visual system development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the visual system over time, from its formation to the mature structure, including the eye, parts of the central nervous system (CNS) involved in processing of visual inputs, and connecting nerve pathways.


lateral line system development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the lateral line system over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The lateral line system is a network of sensory organs (neuromasts) and lateral line nerves located superficially on the skin or just under the skin in fluid-filled canals on the head and body of all fishes and most amphibians. The lateral line system develops from cranial ectodermal placodes situated between the eye and ear.


shoot regeneration

description: The regeneration process by which a damaged or lost shoot regrows or re-differentiates. This process may occur via de-differentiation and subsequent reprogramming of somatic cells or activation of existing undifferentiated (meristematic) cells to produce a new shoot meristem and subsequently a new shoot.


name: anterior lateral line system development

description: The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the anterior lateral line system over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The anterior lateral line system develops from cranial ectodermal placodes, situated between the eye and the ear, that give rise to both the neuromasts and the anterior lateral line sensory nerves that innervate the neuromasts. The anterior lateral line system consists of small sensory patches (neuromasts) located superficially on the skin or just under the skin in fluid-filled canals on the head of all fishes and most amphibians and are innervated by several lateral line nerves, which project to the hindbrain. The anterior lateral line system is stimulated by local water displacements and vibrations, and detects propulsion of the fish through the water, as well as facilitating shoaling, prey capture, and predator and obstacle avoidance.


hypaxial region somite 2

description: The hypaxial region of somite 2 derived body wall muscle. The hypaxial region is ventral to the horizontal myoseptum. Kimmel et al, 1995.


mammary gland duct cavitation

description: Creation of the central hole of the mammary gland duct by the hollowing out of a solid rod.


myofibrillar myopathy 3

description: A rare, late adult-onset myofibrillar myopathy characterized by progressive distal muscle weakness associated with peripheral neuropathy and hyporeflexia. Ambulation may be lost within a few years.


name: positive regulation of calcium-mediated signaling involved in cellular response to calcium ion

description: Any positive regulation of calcium-mediated signaling that is involved in cellular response to calcium ion.


pheromone binding

description: Binding to a pheromone, a substance, or characteristic mixture of substances, that is secreted and released by an organism and detected by a second organism of the same or a closely related species, in which it causes a specific reaction, such as a definite behavioral reaction or a developmental process.


Penile Glomus Tumor

description: A glomus tumor that occurs in the penis.


Bone Glomus Tumor

description: A benign or malignant glomus tumor arising from the bone.


name: Glomus tumor of uncertain malignant potential

description: A glomus tumor that shows atypical characteristics and has borderline malignant potential.


Solid Glomus Tumor

description: The most common morphologic variant of glomus tumor.  It is characterized by the presence of a nest of glomus cells surrounding capillary sized vessels.


Benign Glomus Tumor

description: A glomus tumor of small size characterized by the absence of nuclear atypia and mitotic activity.


Gastric Glomus Tumor

description: A rare glomus tumor that arises from the stomach.  It is seen in adults, especially women.  The majority of cases follow a benign clinical course.


glomuvenous malformation

description: Glomuvenous malformations (GVMs) are hereditary vascular malformations characterized by the presence of small, multifocal bluish-purple venous lesions involving the skin.


collagen fibril binding

description: Binding to a collagen fibril.


peroxisome biogenesis disorder type 3B

description: A genetic disorder characterized by abnormalities in the breakdown of phytanic acid. It results in accumulation of phytanic acid in the blood, brain and other tissues. Signs and symptoms include retinitis pigmentosa which may lead to blindness, hearing problems and deafness, hypotonia, ataxia, nystagmus, facial deformities, and mental and growth retardation.


Stage IVA Ovarian Cancer AJCC v8

description: Stage IVA includes: Any T, Any N, M1a. M1a: Ovarian cancer with pleural effusion with positive cytology. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


Stage IV Ovarian Cancer AJCC v8

description: Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1: M1: Distant metastasis, including pleural effusion with positive cytology; liver or splenic parenchymal metastasis; metastasis to extra-abdominal organs (including inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside the abdominal cavity); and transmural involvement of intestine. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


Stage IVB Ovarian Cancer AJCC v8

description: Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b. M1b: Ovarian cancer with liver or splenic parenchymal metastases; metastases to extra-abdominal organs (including inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside the abdominal cavity); transmural involvement of intestine. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)


smallpox

description: A condition that is caused by infection with Variola, and that is characterized by small, raised bumps.


Modified smallpox

description: Smallpox that occurs in an individual who has been vaccinated.


name: Testicular Germ Cell Neoplasia In Situ with Extratubular Extension

description: A malignant neoplasm that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of large germ cells with abundant cytoplasm in the seminiferous tubules, associated with an invasive germ cell tumor in the adjacent tissues.


name: 23S rRNA (guanine(745)-N(1))-methyltransferase activity

description: Catalysis of the reaction: S-adenosyl-L-methionine + guanine(745) in 23S rRNA = N(1)-methylguanine(745) in 23S rRNA + S-adenosyl-L-homocysteine.


trisomy 9p

description: Trisomy 9p is a rare chromosomal anomaly syndrome, resulting from a partial or complete trisomy of the short arm of chromosome 9, with a wide phenotypic variablility, typically characterized by intellectual disability, craniofacial dysmorphism (e.g. microcephaly, large anterior fontanel, hypertelorism, strabismus, downslanting palpebral fissures, malformed, low-set, protruding ears, bulbous nose, macrostomia, down-turned corners of mouth, micrognathia), digital anomalies (brachydactyly and clinodactyly), and short stature. Less frequently patients present with cardiopathy and renal, skeletal, and central nervous system malformations.


name: L-alanine biosynthetic process via ornithine

description: The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of L-alanine, via the intermediate ornithine.


L-alanine biosynthetic process

description: The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of L-alanine, the L-enantiomer of 2-aminopropanoic acid, i.e. (2S)-2-aminopropanoic acid.


name: L-alanine biosynthetic process from pyruvate

description: The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of alanine from other compounds, including pyruvate.


deep parotid lymph node

description: The deep parotid lymph nodes are lymph nodes found below the parotid gland. The afferents of the subparotid glands drain the nasal part of the pharynx and the posterior parts of the nasal cavities. Their efferents pass to the superior deep cervical glands.


infra-auricular lymph node

description: The infra-auricular deep parotid lymph nodes are a group of lymph nodes found underneath the ear.


viral head-tail joining

description: Process by which virus heads and tails are attached to each other.


Head and Neck Rhabdomyosarcoma

description: A malignant neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation that arises from the head and neck. It usually affects the orbit, eyelid, ear, sinonasal tract, and nasopharynx.


orbit alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

description: A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises in the orbit. It is characterized by the presence of round cells with myoblastic differentiation and a fibrovascular stroma.


Sinonasal Rhabdomyosarcoma

description: A rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses.


orbit rhabdomyosarcoma

description: A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation that arises from the orbit.


name: positive regulation of membrane repolarization during ventricular cardiac muscle cell action potential

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of membrane repolarization during ventricular cardiac muscle cell action potential.


name: regulation of cardiac muscle cell membrane repolarization

description: Any process that modulates the establishment or extent of a change in membrane potential in the polarizing direction towards the resting potential in a cardiomyocyte.


name: negative regulation of voltage-gated potassium channel activity involved in ventricular cardiac muscle cell action potential repolarization

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of voltage-gated potassium channel activity involved in ventricular cardiac muscle cell action potential repolarization.


name: negative regulation of membrane repolarization during atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of membrane repolarization during atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential.


name: positive regulation of membrane repolarization during cardiac muscle cell action potential

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of membrane repolarization during cardiac muscle cell action potential.


name: positive regulation of voltage-gated potassium channel activity involved in atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential repolarization

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of voltage-gated potassium channel activity involved in atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential repolarization.


name: regulation of membrane repolarization during ventricular cardiac muscle cell action potential

description: Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of membrane repolarization during ventricular cardiac muscle cell action potential.


name: negative regulation of membrane repolarization during ventricular cardiac muscle cell action potential

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of membrane repolarization during ventricular cardiac muscle cell action potential.


name: positive regulation of membrane repolarization during atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of membrane repolarization during atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential.


name: regulation of membrane repolarization during cardiac muscle cell action potential

description: Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of membrane repolarization during cardiac muscle cell action potential.


name: regulation of membrane repolarization during atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential

description: Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of membrane repolarization during atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential.


name: regulation of voltage-gated potassium channel activity involved in atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential repolarization

description: Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of voltage-gated potassium channel activity involved in atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential repolarization.


name: negative regulation of voltage-gated potassium channel activity involved in atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential repolarization

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of voltage-gated potassium channel activity involved in atrial cardiac muscle cell action potential repolarization.


name: negative regulation of membrane repolarization during cardiac muscle cell action potential

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of membrane repolarization during cardiac muscle cell action potential.


Advanced Rectal Squamous Cell Carcinoma

description: Rectal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment.


name: Metastatic Rectal Squamous Cell Carcinoma

description: Rectal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites.


name: Locally Advanced Rectal Squamous Cell Carcinoma

description: Rectal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes.


description: Catalysis of the reaction: adenosylcobinamide-GDP + alpha-ribazole = GMP + adenosylcobalamin.


mediastinitis

description: An inflammatory process affecting the mediastinum.


nail of pedal digit

description: A nail that is part of a pedal digit.


peptidyl-methionine racemization

description: The racemization of peptidyl-methionine.


chiral amino acid racemization

description: The formation of a mixture of the two possible enantiomers from the D- or L-enantiomer of a chiral amino acid.


peptidyl-tryptophan racemization

description: The racemization of peptidyl-tryptophan.


peptidyl-leucine racemization

description: The racemization of peptidyl-leucine.


peptidyl-D-alanine racemization, direct

description: The racemization of peptidyl-alanine.


name: peptidyl-D-alanine racemization via peptidyl-L-serine

description: The dehydration of peptidyl-serine, followed by hydrogenation to produce peptidyl-D-alanine.


peptidyl-threonine racemization

description: The racemization of peptidyl-L-threo-threonine at the alpha-carbon to form D-allo-threonine. This is coupled with the formation of the cross-link 2-(S-L-cysteinyl)-D-allo-threonine.


peptidyl-D-alanine racemization

description: The formation of peptidyl-D-alanine, by either racemization or from peptidyl-L-serine.


peptidyl-isoleucine racemization

description: The racemization of peptidyl-isoleucine.


peptidyl-phenylalanine racemization

description: The racemization of peptidyl-phenylalanine.


peptidyl-L-amino acid racemization

description: The process of conversion of a L-amino acid into its enantiomer, the corresponding D-amino acid.


peptidyl-serine racemization

description: The racemization of peptidyl-serine.


name: positive regulation of inflammatory response to wounding

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the inflammatory response to wounding.


extrahepatic bile duct epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a extrahepatic bile duct [Automatically generated definition].


kidney pelvis urothelium

description: The epithelial lining of the luminal space of the kidney pelvis.


simple columnar epithelium

description: Unilaminar epithelium, which consists of a single layer of columnar cells. Examples: ciliated columnar epithelium, gastric epithelium, microvillus columnar epithelium.[FMA].


epithelium of urethra

description: The urethra is a renal system organ that carries urine from the bladder to outside the body. The epithelium is the tubular, planar layer of cells through which the urine passes..


unilaminar epithelium

description: Epithelium which consists of a single layer of epithelial cells. Examples: endothelium, mesothelium, glandular squamous epithelium.[FMA].


urethra urothelium

description: An urothelium that is part of a urethra [Automatically generated definition].


bile duct epithelium

description: Any epithelium that lines one of the bile ducts.


epithelium of conjunctiva

description: Layer of nonkeratinized squamous epithelium lining the conjunctiva, overlying scleral tissue.


nephron tubule epithelium

description: The cellular avascular layer of the renal tubule luminar surfaces.


cuboidal epithelium

description: An epithelium consisting of cuboidal epithelial cells.


epithelium of oropharynx

description: An epithelium that is part of a oropharynx [Automatically generated definition].


Pigment Epithelium

description: Tissue consisting of one or more layers of epithelial cells and a basement membrane. The cells contain granules of pigment or melanin, as in the retinal or iris pigment layer.


germinal epithelium of ovary

description: Layer of simple cuboidal cells covering surface of ovary[WP].


name: fourth ventricle choroid plexus epithelium

description: A choroid plexus epithelium that is part of a fourth ventricle [Automatically generated definition].


epithelium of vagina

description: The epithelial layer of the vagina.


stratified cuboidal epithelium

description: Stratified cuboidal epithelia is a rare type of epithelial tissue composed of cuboidally shaped cells arranged in multiple layers. They protect areas such as ducts of sweat glands, mammary glands, and salivary glands.


epithelium of esophagus

description: The epithelial layer that lines the luminal space of the esophagus.


cervix epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a uterine cervix [Automatically generated definition].


Transitional epithelium

description: Stratified epithelium that changes shape from cuboidal to squamous when stretched without losing strength or consistency. This type of epithelium is found in the urinary tract.


Endometrial Tissue

description: The mucous membrane comprising the inner layer of the uterine wall; it consists of a simple columnar epithelium and a lamina propria that contains simple tubular uterine glands. The structure, thickness, and state of the endometrium undergo marked change with the menstrual cycle.


stratified columnar epithelium

description: Stratified columnar epithelia is a rare type of epithelial tissue composed of column shaped cells arranged in multiple layers. Stratified columnar epithelia are found in the ocular conjunctiva of the eye, in parts of the pharynx and anus, the female's uterus, the male urethra and vas deferens. Also found in intralobular ducts in salivary glands.[WP].


epithelium of gonad

description: An epithelium surrounding a gonad.


simple cuboidal epithelium

description: Unilaminar epithelium that consists of a single layer of cuboidal cells.


Urinary bladder transitional epithelium

description: The epithelium of the bladder, which consists of multiple layers of transitional cells.


simple squamous epithelium

description: Unilaminar epithelium which consists of a single layer of squamous cells. Examples: pulmonary alveolar epithelium, endothelium.[FMA].


prostate epithelium

description: The prostate epithelium.


ciliary epithelium

description: A double layer covering the ciliary body that produces aqueous humor.


Rathke's pouch

description: A pouch of ectoderm that grows out from the upper surface of the embryonic stomodeum and gives rise to the anterior and intermediate lobes of the pituitary gland[MP]. In embryogenesis, Rathke's pouch is a depression in the roof of the developing mouth in front of the buccopharyngeal membrane. It gives rise to the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis), a part of the endocrine system[WP].


seminiferous tubule epithelium

description: The stratified epithelial lining of the seminiferous tubules, consisting of the developing spermatozoa and the supporting Sertoli cells, which are tall, columnar type cells that line the tubule.


oral epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of the mouth and lines the oral cavity, typically stratified squamous, and may be para-, ortho- or non- keratinized. Primary barrier between oral environment and deeper tissues.


name: lateral ventricle choroid plexus epithelium

description: A choroid plexus epithelium that is part of a lateral ventricle [Automatically generated definition].


male prepuce epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a prepuce of penis [Automatically generated definition].


vagina squamous epithelium

description: A squamous epithelium that is part of a vagina.


intrahepatic bile duct epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a intrahepatic bile duct [Automatically generated definition].


name: Lactiferous terminal ductal lobular unit

description: The epithelial structures within the breast that produce milk during lactation.


lens anterior epithelium

description: A layer of cuboidal epithelial cells bounded anteriorly by the capsule of the lens and posteriorly by the lens cortex.


cervix squamous epithelium

description: The squamous epithelium of the cervical portio is similar to that of the vagina, except that it is generally smooth and lacks rete pegs. Colposcopically, it appears featureless except for a fine network of vessels which is sometimes visible. The relative opacity and pale pink coloration of the squamous epithelium derives from its multi-layered histology and the location of its supporting vessels below the basement membrane.


pigmented layer of retina

description: A monolayer of pigmented epithelium covering the neural retina; develops from the outer of the two layers of the optic cup[ZFA]. the pigmented cell layer just outside the neurosensory retina that nourishes retinal visual cells, and is firmly attached to the underlying choroid and overlying retinal visual cells[WP].


epithelium of crypt of Lieberkuhn

description: An epithelium that is part of a crypt of Lieberkuhn.


stratified squamous epithelium

description: Multilaminar epithelium which consists of more than one layer of squamous cells only one layer of which is in contact with a basement membrane. Examples: keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, epithelium of wall of esophagus.[FMA].


urachus epithelium

description: An epithelium that is part of a urachus.


dental epithelium

description: Epithelium that is part of a developing tooth or dental organ.


choroid plexus epithelium

description: The epithelial component of the choroid plexus. Consists of cuboidal epithelial cells surrounding a core of capillaries and loose connective tissue.


urothelium

description: An epithelial tissue layer that lines much of the urinary tract, including the renal pelvis, the ureters, the bladder, and parts of the urethra.


Posterior Pigment Epithelium

description: Highly pigmented epithelium covering the posterior surface of the iris.


epithelium of mammary gland

description: The epithelial layer of the luminal surfaces of the mammary gland.


outer dental epithelium

description: Outer layer of cells of the dental organ.


epithelium of gall bladder

description: The simple columnar epithelial lining of the gall bladder.


epithelium of tongue

description: An epithelium that is part of a tongue [Automatically generated definition].


inner dental epithelium

description: Inner layer of cells of the dental organ, nearest the odontogenic papilla, and composed of ameloblasts.


digestive tract epithelium

description: An epithelium that lines the lumen of the digestive tract.


squamous epithelium

description: An epithelium characterised by its most superficial layer consisting of squamous epithelial cells.


tympanic membrane epithelium

description: One of the two epithelia which make up the tympanic membrane (along with the fibrous layer).


glandular columnar epithelium

description: Simple columnar epithelium that constitutes the secretory part of a gland. Examples: epithelium of stomach, luminal epithelium of lactiferous duct.[FMA].


multilaminar epithelium

description: Epithelium which consists of more than one layer of epithelial cells that may or may not be in contact with a basement membrane. Examples: keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, ciliated stratified columnar epithelium.[FMA].


intestinal epithelium

description: Epithelial layer that lines the intestine.


glandular epithelium

description: An epithelium that is composed primarily of secretory cells.


frontonasal suture

description: A suture between frontal and nasal bones.


craniofacial suture

description: Any suture between cranial and/or facial bones.


facial suture

description: Any suture between facial bones.


sphenozygomatic suture

description: The Sphenozygomatic suture is the cranial suture between the sphenoid bone and the zygomatic bone.


frontomaxillary suture

description: A suture between the frontal bone and the frontal process of the maxilla.


occipitomastoid suture

description: The occipitomastoid suture is the cranial suture between the occipital bone and the mastoid portion of the temporal bone. It is continuous with the lambdoidal suture.


squamoparietal suture

description: The articulation of the squamous portion of the temporal bones with the parietal bones[MP]. The squamosal suture arches backward from the pterion and connects the temporal squama with the lower border of the parietal: this suture is continuous behind with the short, nearly horizontal parietomastoid suture, which unites the mastoid process of the temporal with the region of the mastoid angle of the parietal[WP].


sphenofrontal suture

description: The Sphenofrontal suture is the cranial suture between the sphenoid bone and the frontal bone.


lambdoid suture

description: The dense, fibrous connective tissue joint between the parietal bones and the occipital bone.


nasomaxillary suture

description: A cranial suture that connects a nasal bone and connects a maxilla.


cartilaginous joint suture

description: A cranial suture that is part of a cartilaginous joint [Automatically generated definition].


suture of hard palate

description: Any of the sutures of the hard palate.


fontanelle

description: Anatomical structure that is a membranous gap between bones of the skull[TAO]. In humans: Fontanelles are soft spots on a baby's head which, during birth, enable the bony plates of the skull to flex, allowing the child's head to pass through the birth canal. The ossification of the bones of the skull cause the fontanelles to close over by a child's second birthday. The closures eventually form the sutures of the neurocranium. Although there are the two anterior and posterior fontanelles, there are two more fontanelles of interest, the mastoid fontanelle, and the sphenoidal fontanelle[WP].


zygomaticomaxillary suture

description: A suture between the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the maxilla.


lateral fontanel of frontal

description: Fontanel within the frontal bone near the frontal-sphenotic joint. Lateral fontanel of frontal is paired.


ethmoidomaxillary suture

description: A suture between the orbital surface of the body of the maxilla with the orbital plate of the ethmoid bone.


sagittal suture

description: The dense, fibrous connective tissue joint between the tetrapod parietal bones.


posterior fontanelle

description: A gap between bones in the skull at the junction of the sagittal suture and lambdoidal suture.


actinopterygian frontal-parietal joint

description: Fibrous joint connecting the actinopterygian frontal bone to the actinopterygian parietal bone.


posterior cranial fontanel

description: Fontanel that is located posterior to the epiphyseal bar, and typically located between the contralateral frontals and parietals (if present) and bordered posteriorly by the supraoccipital.


lacrimomaxillary suture

description: A suture between the lacrimal bone and the maxilla.


sphenoparietal suture

description: The Sphenoparietal suture is the cranial suture between the sphenoid bone and the parietal bone.


coronal suture

description: The dense, fibrous connective tissue joint between the tetrapod parietal bones and the frontal bone.


internasal suture

description: A suture joining the nasal bones.


nasal suture

description: A suture joining a nasal bone to another bone.


anterior cranial fontanel

description: Fontanel that is located between the contralateral frontals and anterior to the epiphyseal bar.


frontal suture

description: A suture that connects the two frontal bones of the skull.


intermaxillary suture

description: A cranial suture in the midline of the skull that connects the left and right maxilla bones.


sphenovomerine suture

description: A suture joining a sphenoid bone with the alae of a vomer to form a schindylesis type of joint.


maxillary-premaxillary suture

description: A suture between the maxilla and premaxilla.


anterior fontanel

description: In humans, the anterior fontanelle (bregmatic fontanelle, frontal fontanelle) is the largest, and is placed at the junction of the sagittal suture, coronal suture, and frontal suture; it is lozenge-shaped, and measures about 4 cm in its antero-posterior and 2.5 cm in its transverse diameter. The fontanelle allows the skull to deform during birth to ease its passage through the birth canal and for expansion of the brain after birth. While the posterior and lateral fontanelles are obliterated by about six months after birth, the anterior is not completely closed until about the middle of the second year. Full ossification starts in the late twenties and finishes before the age of 50 . [WP,unvetted].


sphenomaxillary suture

description: An inconstant suture between the pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone and the body of the maxilla.


intersphenoid suture

description: A suture joining the basisphenoid bone and the presphenoid bone of a sphenoid bone.


median palatine suture

description: The line of junction between the horizontal parts of the palatine bones that extends from both sides of the skull to form the posterior part of the hard palate.


Isolated Premature Menarche

description: Occurrence of the first menstrual period in a girl before the lower limit of the normal age range for the reference population, without other signs of puberty.


irregular menstruation (diagnosis)

description: Deviations from the normal process; e.g. delayed, difficult, profuse, scanty, unusual bleeding, etc.


campomelic dysplasia

description: Campomelic dysplasia is a very rare disorder characterized by a variable association of skeletal abnormalities (bowed and fragile long bones, pelvis and chest abnormalities, eleven rib pairs instead of the usual twelve), and extraskeletal abnormalities (facial dysmorphology, cleft palate, sexual ambiguity or sex reversal in two thirds of the affected boys, and brain, heart and kidney malformations).


name: negative regulation of attachment of mitotic spindle microtubules to kinetochore

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of attachment of spindle microtubules to kinetochore involved in mitotic sister chromatid segregation.


name: ascospore wall beta-glucan metabolic process

description: The chemical reactions and pathways involving beta-glucans, compounds composed of glucose residues linked by beta-D-glucosidic bonds, found in the walls of ascospores.


name: ascospore wall (1->3)-beta-D-glucan metabolic process

description: The chemical reactions and pathways involving (1->3)-beta-D-glucans, compounds composed of glucose residues linked by (1->3)-beta-D-glucosidic bonds, found in the walls of ascospores.


name: proximal convoluted tubule segment 1 cell differentiation

description: The process in which relatively unspecialized cells acquire specialized structural and/or functional features that characterize the S1 cells of the kidney as it progresses from its formation to the mature state.


name: regulation of cellular component organization

description: Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of a process involved in the formation, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of cell structures, including the plasma membrane and any external encapsulating structures such as the cell wall and cell envelope.


name: positive regulation of telomere maintenance via recombination

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of a recombinational process involved in the maintenance of proper telomeric length.


name: negative regulation of vacuole fusion, non-autophagic

description: Any process that decreases the frequency, rate or extent of the fusion of two vacuole membranes to form a single vacuole.


name: negative regulation of focal adhesion disassembly

description: Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of a focal adhesion into its constituent components.


name: positive regulation of mitotic cohesin dsDNA (leading strand) loading

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of mitotic cohesin dsDNA (leading strand) loading.


name: regulation of beta-catenin-TCF complex assembly

description: Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of beta-catenin-TCF complex assembly.


name: negative regulation of beta-catenin-TCF complex assembly

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of beta-catenin-TCF complex assembly.


name: regulation of actomyosin structure organization

description: Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of cytoskeletal structures containing both actin and myosin or paramyosin.


name: positive regulation of postsynaptic density organization

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of postsynaptic density organization.


name: negative regulation of telomerase catalytic core complex assembly

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of telomerase catalytic core complex assembly.


name: negative regulation of metaphase/anaphase transition of meiosis I

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of metaphase/anaphase transition of meiosis I.


name: negative regulation of cardiac myofibril assembly

description: Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of cardiac myofibril assembly.


name: positive regulation of [2Fe-2S] cluster assembly

description: Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of [2Fe-2S] cluster assembly.